Giáo dụcLớp 6

Bộ 5 đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2021 Trường THCS Mỹ Thành

Dưới đây là Bộ 5 đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2021 Trường THCS Mỹ Thành. Tài liệu được biên soạn nhằm giới thiệu đến các em dạng đề học sinh giỏi để các em làm quen với cấu trúc cũng như chuẩn bị thật tốt cho kì thi học sinh giỏi sắp tới. Mời các em cùng tham khảo!

BỘ 5 ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 NĂM 2021

TRƯỜNG THCS MỸ THÀNH

1. Đề số 1

SECTION 1: LISTENING.

Part I. Listen to a conversation and decide if the statements are true (T) or false (F).

(10 points)                                                                                           T                    F

1. Sarah is a teacher.                                                

 

 

2. She usually arrives at work at nine o’clock.

 

 

3. Sarah always brings a sandwich from home.

 

 

4. She often has work to do in the evening.

 

 

5 She never goes out during the week.

 

 

Part II. Listen and  fill in the gaps in the table. ( 10  points)

Student 1:     

Name:  Celine (0) Poulain

Nationality:     French

Age:    25

Job:(1) ___________

Student 2:     

Name:  Manuel Garcia

Nationality: (2) ___________

Age: 32

Job: Engineer

 

Student 3:

Name: Eva (3) ___________

Nationality: Finnish

 Age: (4) ___________

 Job:  (5) ___________

Write your answer here

1 __________ 2___________            3___________            4 _________   5 _________

SECTION 2: PHONETICS.

III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D. (10 points)

 1.  A. album                           B. use                          C. amusement D. united

 2.  A. minority                        B. gramophone            C. robbery                   D. monument

 3. A. attraction                       B. battle                      C. veteran                    D. character

 4. A. invention                       B. depend                   C. resort                      D. defeat

 5.  A. hoped                           B. looked                    C. opened                    D. washed

Write your answer here

1 __________ 2___________            3___________            4 _________   5 _________

IV. Choose the word with different stress pattern. Write A, B, C or D in the space provided (10points)

1. A. surprise                           B. sugar                       C. profession D. success

2. A. advance              B. around                     C. industry                 D. imperial

3. A. natural                            B. national                   C. literature                D. suggestion

4. A. charming                        B. champagne  C. children                 D. charity

5. A. decide                            B. around                    C. popular                  D. enjoy

Write your answer here

     1. __________          2.___________        3. ___________   4 _________          5 _________

SECTION 3: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR.

V. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence, identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. )(50 points)

1. We always need more players. Why don’t you come___________?

          A. on                            B. along                   C. with                   D. after

2. Will you be home …………..dinner tonight?

           A. to                             B. for                       C. at                       D. on

3. Giving a book report before the class is an interesting ___________

           A. act                           B. action                  C. activity               D. deed

4. Do you go out ___________?

          A. in the afternoon on Fridays                      B. on Fridays in the afternoon

          C. on afternoons Friday                                D. on Friday afternoons

5. …………….lives in a very big house

          A. A Queen of England                                 B. Queen of England

          C. The Queen of the England                        D. the Queen of England

6. On Sunday mornings I stay in bed ___________8 o’clock.

          A. until                          B. at                          C. from                  D. to

7. I often ___________in winter.

          A. go playing skiing                                       B. go skiing

          C. play skiing                                                  D. go to ski

8. Some young people are working ___________hospital volunteers.

          A. to be                          B. such as                 C. like                   D. as

9. We shouldn’t cross the street outside the ___________

         A. pavement                    B. foot lane             C. sidewalk          D. zebra crossing

10. They ___________healthy after the summer vacation.

         A. looked                        B. were seeming      C. were looking    D. were appearing

11. They meet their friends and ___________some fun.

          A. take                            B. have                    C. do                    D. enjoy

12. You should pay more ___________in class.

          A. part                            B. care                      C. notice              D. attention

13. He and his friends usually get ___________and talk about their stamps.

          A. together                     B. themselves           C. each other     D. one another

14. He likes stamps. He is a stamp ___________

           A. collect                      B. collecting             C. collector        D. collects

15. Some students say they are ___________have no time for pastime.

           A. hurry                         B. busy                     C. full                D. hard

16. It’s difficult to cross this street because there is too much ___________

           A. crowd                       B. traffic                   C. people            D. transport

17. There aren’t any good movies ___________at the moment.

            A. going on                  B. being on              C. performing     D. showing

18. Sorry I can’t come but thanks ___________

            A. any ways                  B. any way                 C. anyway          D. in anyway

19. Look at ___________.girl over there.

            A. one                           B. this                         C. that                D. a

20. Would you like to come to my house for lunch?

            A. Yes, I do                  B. I’d love to               C. Yes, I like     D. OK. I’d like

21. Linda: “Do you live in the country or in the city?” ~ Daisy: “___________”

            A. Yes, I do                  B. I live in the city       C. No, I don’t    D. I live on the city

22. Tom: “___________________”~ Jake: “She is kind.”

           A. What does your teacher like?                        B. What would your teacher like?

           C. What does your teacher look like                  D. What is your teacher like?

23. Bill: “Are you John?” John: “___________”

          A. All right                       B. Turn right                     C. That’s right       D. You right

24 . She is studying hard. She is going to be___________ student in my class.

A. the best                       B. best                              C. the better       D. better

25. Nam can wait hours for his friends without getting angry. He is a ___________boy.

           A. hard-working              B. free                             C. patient    D. active

Write your answer here

1 __________

2___________

3___________

4 _________

5 _________

6 __________

7___________

8___________

9_________

10_________

11 __________

12__________

13___________

14_________

15_________

16 __________

17__________

18___________

19_________

20_________

21 __________

22__________

23___________

24_________

25_________

VI. Supply the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (5 points)

  1. Tom  (1) ( not come ) _______________ here tomorrow

  2. Trees   (2) ( plant ) _____________ since it  (3) ( stop ) ___________ raining

  3. My sister always (4)( wear)___________ nice clothes for work. Today she (5) (wear)___________ a blue jacket and shirt.     

Write your answer here

1

 

2

 

3

 

4

 

5

 

VII. Give the correct form of the words in capital to complete the sentences. (10 points)

1. It is ____________to go hiking in this area.                                         (DANGER)

2. Ha Long Bay is number one ____________  wonder in Vietnam.       (NATURE)

3. Mary is the ____________  of the English speaking club in my class. (LEAD)

4. Big cities in Vietnam are too busy and ___________                          (POLLUTE)

5. Hoi An is a _____city with a lot of old houses, shops and buildings. (HISTORY)

6. My trip to Phong Nha Ke Bang is ___________ experience.              (FORGET) 

7. There are many ______________  festivals in Vietnam.                     (TRADITION)

8. We should eat less fast food or junk food because they are _____       (HEALTH)

9. Visitors come to Hue because there are many tourist __________      (ATTRACT)

10. Thousands of people were made ________by the earthquake in Indonesia. (HOME)

Write your answer here

1 __________

2___________

3___________

4 _________

5 _________

6 __________

7___________

8___________

9_________

10_________

VIII. Circle the letter A,B,C or D before the mistake in each sentence. then correct them (5 points)   

1. If you are interesting in history, you can visit many ancient monuments.
            A          B       C                            D

2. Sports and games make our body strength, prevent us from getting too fat.
                                                           A            B            C        D

3. An English friend of me, Mary, usually sends me American stamps.
    A                               B                              C     D

4. Does it make a long time to go from Hue to Ha Noi by train?
                A                 B              C                             D

5. There are less TV programs for teenagers than there are for adults.
                  A                          B                    C                           D

 Write your answers here

 

1

2

3

4

5

Mistake

 

…………….

……………

……………

……………

……………

Correction

 

……………

……………

…………

……………

……………

SECTION 4: READING.

IX. Read the passage. Then choose one suitable word to fill in the gaps. (20 points)

The rockies

The rockies Mountain run almost the length (0)______ North  American. They start in the North- West, but lie only a (1)______ hundred miles from the centre in more southern areas. Although the Rockies are smaller (2)______ the Alps, they are no less wonderful. There are many roads across the Rockies, (3)______ the best way to see them is to (4)______ by train. You start from Vancouver, (5)______ most attractive of Canada’s big cities. Standing with its feet in the water and its head in the mountains, this city (6)______ its residents to ski on slopes just 15 minutes by car from the city (7)______ .Thirty passenger trains a day used to (8)______ off from Vancouver on the cross- continent railway. Now there are just three a week, but the ride is still a great adventure. You sleep on board, (9)______ is fun, but travel through some of the best (10)______ at night.

0

A. in

B. down

C. of

D. through

1

A. many

B. lot

C. few

D. couple

2

A. from

B. to

C. as

D. than

3

A. but

B. because

C. unless

D. since

4

A. drive

B. travel

C. ride

D. pass

5

A. a

B. one

C. the

D. Its

6

A. lest

B. allows

C. offers

D. gives

7

A. centre

B. circle

C. middle

D. heart

8

A. leave

B. get

C. take

D. set

9

A. when

B. which

C. who

D. where

10

A. scenery

B. view

C. site

D. beauty

Write your answer here

1 __________

2___________

3___________

4 _________

5 _________

6 __________

7___________

8___________

9_________

10_________

X. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (20 points)

In the USA, students (1)_____________their secondary education at the age of 11. First they (2)_____________to Middle School for three years. Then they go for High School for four years, from the age 14 to 18. Some students (3)_____________ school when they are 16 and (4)_______________ jobs. But most students (5)_____________at High School still they are 18. Then they (6) _____________ exams and they get “High School Diploma”. There aren’t any national exams.

All students at secondary school in the USA (7)_____________English, maths, science, and P.E., but students (8)_______________other subjects, so they don’t all study the same subjects.

About 90% of (9)___________ in the USA go to state school. About 10% go to (10)______________ schools. Most of the private schools are religious schools.

Write your answer here

1 __________

2___________

3___________

4 _________

5 _________

6 __________

7___________

8___________

9_________

10_________

XI. Read the following passage, then answer the questions by circling A, B, C or D. (10 pts)

CRICKET

            Cricket is an English game. People from most other countries think it is very, very slow, but the English think it is exciting.

            There are two teams with eleven players on each team in a cricket match. They play outdoors on a field. They play around two wickets. A wicket is three sticks in the ground with two sticks across them at the top. The wickets are twenty meters apart.

            One player is a bowler. He stands by one wicket and throws a ball at the other wicket. He tries to hit one of the top sticks and make it fall to the ground.

            Another player is a batsman. He holds a stick called a bat. He stands behind the second wicket. He tries to hit the ball before it hits the sticks. If he hits the ball, he runs to the other wicket. Sometimes he can run from one wicket to the other several times until a player in the field catches the ball and throws it back to the wickets.

          An important match can continue for 4 or 5 days. The players make hundreds of runs.

Cricket began in England in the 1300s. It became a major sport in the 1700s. Englishmen taught the game to people in their colonies. Today cricket is still popular in most of those countries.

1. __________people play cricket at one time.

    A. Two                                B. Six                          C. Eleven                    D. Twenty-two

2. A player tries to hit the ball with__________ .

    A. a bat                               B. a wicket                  C. his foot                   D. his head

3. The bowler tries to__________ .

    A. hit the bat                       B. hit the wicket          C. run to the wicket    D. run into the field

4. If the batsman hits the ball with his bat, he__________.

    A. runs into the field                                               B. runs to the other wicket

    C. tries to hit the wicket                                          D. tries to hit the bowler

5. Cricket became popular in England in the __________ century.

    A. eleventh              B. fourteenth               C. eighteenth               D. twentieth

Write your answer here

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

SECTION 5: WRITING

XII. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the first one. (20 points)

1. Nobody plays this piece of music as beautifully as he does.

→  He plays this…………………………………………………

2. We spent five hours getting to London.

→ It took …………………………………………………………………………….

3. Listening to music gives him pleasure.

→ He enjoys………………………………………………………………………..

4. She is more beautiful than her younger sister.

→ Her ……………………………………………………………………………….

5. They began studying English in 2015.

→ They ……………………………………………………………………………..

6. You ought to go to school now.

→ It’s time …………………………………………………………………………

7. We couldn’t keep on cleaning the streets because of the heavy rain.

→  Because it……………………………………………………………….

8. We can’t afford to buy the car.

→ The car is ………………………………………………………………………..

9. People say that he wins the first prize.

→ He is said to …………………………………………………………………….

10. She bought that house in 1990.

→ She has …………………………………………………………………………..

XIII. Use the words and phrases given to write meaningful sentences. You can add or change anything necessary. (10 points)

1. There / good restaurant/ that/ street/so / my friends / I/ eat/ there/./

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. My sister/ enjoy/ go/ the cinema/ her/ friends /./

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

3. Which/ activity/ use/ more/ calories/ walking/ or/ riding/ bicycle/?/

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. You/ better / eat /too / candies /because /they / not good /your teeth /./

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

5. performance/ she/ give/ last night/ marvellous /./

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

XIV. Write a paragraph (about 80 – 100  words ) to tell about a person you love or admire (10 points)

(Viết một bài (Khoảng 80 – 100 từ) kể về một người em yêu quý hoặc ngưỡng mộ bằng Tiếng Anh)

ĐÁP ÁN

SECTION 1: LISTENING. (20 points)

I. Part I. Listen to a conversation and decide if the statements are true (T) or false (F).

(10 points)   5   x   2   =     10 points

1. T                  2 F                  3. F                  4. T                  5. F     

Part II.  Listen to a school secretary talking to one of the teachers and fill in the gaps in the table. (10 points)   5   x   2   =     10 points

1. doctor          2. Mexican          3. Lipponen               4. twenty-one / 24           5.  Artist

SECTION 2: PHONETICS. (20 points)

III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D. (10  point) . (2 x 5 = 10pts)

1. A

2. A

3. C

4. A

5. B

VI. Choose the word with different stress pattern. Write A, B, C or D in the space provided

( 2 x 5 = 10 pt)

1.C

2.B

3.D

4.A     

5.C

SECTION 3: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR. ( 70 points)

V. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence, identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. (50 points) ( 2 x 25= 50pts)

1 .B

2. B

3. C

4 .D

5 . D

6 . A

7. B

8. D

9. D

10.A

11 . B

12. D

13. C

14. C

15.B

16 . B

17. D

18. C

19. D

20. B

21 . B

22. D

23. C

24. A

25. C

VI. Supply the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. ( 5 points) ( 1 x 5  =  5 points)

1

Won’t come / isn’t coming

2

have been planted

3

stopped

4

wears

5

is wearing

VII. Give the correct form of the words in capital to complete the sentences. (10 points)

(1x 10= 10 points)

Write your answer here

1. dangerous           2. natural                   3. leader                 4. polluted               5. historic

6. unforgettable    7. traditional              8. unhealthy 9. attractions        10. homeless

VIII. Find one mistake in each sentence. (5 points ) ( 1 x 5 = 5 points)

 

1

2

3

4

5

Mistake

 

B.

A

B

A

A

Correction

 

interested

strong

mine

take

fewer

SECTION D: READING. ( 50 points)

IX. Read the passage.  Then choose one suitable word to fill in the gaps. (20 points)

(2 x 10 = 20 pts)

1. C

2. D

3. B

4. B

5.C

6. B

7. A

8. D

9. B

10. C

X. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (20 points) (2 x 10 = 20pts)

1. start

2. go

3. leave

4. find

5. stay

6. take

7. study

8. choose 

9. students

10. private

XI. Read the following passage, then answer the questions by circling A, B, C or D. (1.0 pt)

(2 x 5 = 10pts)

1. D                 2. A                 3. B                             4. B                             5. C

SECTION 5: WRITING. ( 40 points )

XII. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the first one. (20 points) (2 x 10= 20pts)

1. He plays this piece of music most beautifully.

2. It took us five hours to get to London.

3. He enjoys listening to music.

4. Her younger sister isn’t as beautiful as she is.

5. They have studied English since 2004./ They have been studying………

6. It’s time for you to go to school.

7. Because it rained heavily, we couldn’t keep on cleaning the streets.

8. The car is too expensive for us to buy.

9. He is said to win the first prize.

10. She has bought that house since 1990.

XIII. Use the words and phrases given to write meaningful sentences. You can add or change anything necessary. (10 points) (2 x 5= 10pts)

1. There is a  good restaurant on  that street, so my  friends and I often eat there.

2. My sister enjoys going to the cinema with  her friends.

3. Which activity uses more calories, walking or riding a bicycle?

4. You’d better not eat too much of candies because they aren’t good for your teeth.

5 . The performance she gave last night was marvellous.

XIV. Write a paragraph (about 80 – 100  words ) to tell about a person you love or admire (10 points)

(Viết một bài (Khoảng 80 – 100 từ) kể về một người em yêu quý hoặc ngưỡng mộ bằng Tiếng Anh)

Tham khảo:

My mother is a person I admire most. She devoted a lot of time and energy to the upbringing of my two brothers and I. Despite working hard, she always made time to teach us many useful things which are necessary and important in our later lives. Moreover, she is a good role model for me to follow. She always tries to get on well with people who live next door and help everyone when they are in difficulties, so most of them respect and love her. I admire and look up to my mother because she not only brings me up well but also stands by me and gives some help if necessary. For example, when I encounter some difficulties, she will give me some precious advice to help me solve those problems. She has a major influence on me and I hope that I will inherit some of her traits.

2. Đề số 2

SECTION 1. LISTENING

Part I. Listen and fill in the missing words. (1,0 point)

1. The daughter feels ………………………………………………………………

2. She wants some …………………………………………………………………

3. She doesn’t like …………………………………………………………………

4. The son is thirsty and……………………………………………………………

5. He would like to drink some…………………………………………………….

Part II. Listen then choose the correct answer. (1,0 point)

1 – Where does Philip do the photography classes?

A. City College                       B. Music College                    C. Math College

2 – What time do the photography classes begin?

A. 5.15 pm                              B. 6.45 pm                              C. 7.00 pm

3 – Philip’s happy with the course because he’s

A. learning about famous photographers

B. using a new camera

C. getting better at photography

4 – Philip  thinks it’s easy to take photographs of

A. trees                                                B. animals                               C. children

5 – After the course Philip will

A. buy a new camera   B. get a job in photography    C. make photography his hobby

Write your answer here

1 __________

2__________

3__________

4 __________

5 __________

SECTION 2. PHONETICS

III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Write your answers in the space provided. (0,6 points)

1. A. plays               B. says                C. days                       D. stays

2. A. sport                 B. start                  C. listen                     D. eat

3. A. A. station        B. question               C.  . intersection        D. invitation

Write your answers here:

1 __________

2__________

3__________

IV. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three of the group. Write your answers in the space provided. (0,4 points)

1. A. delicious                B. difficult               C. dangerous       D. different

2. A. badminton             B. activity                C. basketball       D. aerobics

Write your answers here:

1 __________

2__________

SECTION 3. LEXICO – GRAMMAR

V. Choose the correct answer  to complete each of the following sentences. THERE CAN BE MORE THAN ONE CORRECT ANSWER TO SOME QUESTIONS. Write your answers in the space provided. (5,0 points)

1. You can watch Harry Potter on TV  ________ you can read it.

    A.  so

B. and

C. but

D. or

2. “- ________ a nice T-shirt, Trang!”    _ “Thank you”

    A. How

B. What

C. Which

D. It

3. “- ________ films have you seen this week?” _ “Only one”

    A.  How many

B. What

C. Which

D. Who

4. There aren’t ________  good films on TV at the moment.

    A. some

B. any

C. much

D. a lot

5. If we cut down more trees, there ________ more floods.

    A. are

B. were

C. have been

D. will be

 6. That is ________ book I’ve ever read.

    A. the borest

B. the boring

C. the most boring

D. the most bored

7.  The opposite of “polluted ” is ………………..                      

    A. fresh      

B. good   

C. dirty      

D. safe

8. We should use reusable water bottles ___________ of plastic ones.                                            

   A. instead    

 B. because

C. despite       

D. however

9. In the future, we won’t go on holiday to the beach but we ________ go on holiday to the moon.

    A. must

B. can’t

C. might

D. won’t

10. ________ you swim when you were ten?

    A. Can

B. Could

C. Will

D. Might

11. My father likes watching TV____________ he doesn’t like listening to music.

    A. and  

B.  so

C. but

D. because

12. We should use _____________pens and pencils to reduce rubbish.

    A. reliable

B. reusable

C. refillable

D. sociable

13. In the future, we will have ___________to do housework.

    A.  robots

B. wireless TV

C.  smart phone

D. hi-tech fridge

14. Eiffel Tower is the most attractive ____________in France.

    A. building

B. resort

C. square

D. landmark

15. We should use _________to save natural resources.

    A. oil

B. solar energy

C. coal

D. gas

16._______________ means creating new products from used materials.

    A. Reduce

B. Reuse

C. Recycle

D. Rebuild

17. If the ______________  is polluted, we won’t have enough food to eat.

    A. water

B. air

C. noise

D. soil

18. We should give unused clothes to _____________to help the people in need.

    A. charity

B. factory

C. market

D. hospital

19. ___________ are you going to stay here?            ~ For a week.

    A. How often

B. How long

C. How many

D. How far

20. ______________happens when water in lakes,rivers and oceans is polluted.

A. Air pollution          

B. Soil pollution            

C. Water pollution        

D. Noise pollution

21. John: “How about going to the movies with me on Saturday night?”

 – Ann: “…………..”.

A. Of course not

B. Sure, thanks

C. It’s my pleasure

D. That’s very kind of you

22. Viet Nam is a ……………….. .

A. language

B. nationality

C. country

D. capital

23. A bus-stop is a ………….…. .

A. bus

B. means

C. park

D. place  

24. A: “Would you like some bread?”          B:  “………….…. .”.  

A. No, thanks. I’m full            B. Ok. I don’t like rice

C. All right                  D. Yes, I would

25. John: “………………..?”            Mary:  “That’s a great idea.”

A. Do you like playing sports B. Can you buy me some apples        

C. Why don’t we go out for dinner     D. May I borrow your pen

ĐÁP ÁN

SECTION 1. LISTENING

Part I. (1,0 points) (0,2 point for each correct answer)

1.  hungry       

2. apples

3. noodles       

4. tired

5. orange juice

Part II. (1,0 pointts) (0,2 point for each correct answer)

1. A

2. B

3. C    

4. A

5. C

SECTION 2. PHONETICS

III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Write your answers in the space provided. (0,6 points) (0,2 point for each correct answer)

1. B

2.  C

3. B

IV. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three of the group. Write your answers in the space provided. (0,4 points) (0,2 point for each correct answer)

1. A          

2. B

SECTION 3. LEXICO – GRAMMAR

V. Choose the correct answer  to complete each of the following sentences. THERE CAN BE MORE THAN ONE CORRECT ANSWER TO SOME QUESTIONS. Write your answers in the space provided. (7,0 points) (0,2 point for each correct answer)

1. D

2. B

3. A

4. B

5. D.

6. C

7 .A

8. A

9 .C

10. B

11. B

12.C

13. A

14.D

15. B.

16 .C

17.D

18 .A

19.A

20 .C

21.B

22.C

23.D

24.A

25.C

VI. Give the correct form of the words in capital to complete the sentences.

(2,0 point)

1.dangerous

2.singer

3.noisy

4.teeth

5.secretaries

6.writer

7.comfortable

8.finishes

9.childen

10.musician

VII. There is one mistake in each sentence. Identify the mistake and write your answer in the space provided. (1,0 points) (0,2 point for each correct answer)

1. C

2. B

3. C

4. C

5. B

SECTION 4. READING

VII. Read the passage and choose the best option to complete the passage. Write your answers in the space provided. (2,0 points) (0,2 point for each correct answer)

1. A

2. C

3. D

4. B

5. A

6. C

7. B

8. D

9. A

10. C

VIII. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question. Write your answers in the space provided.  (1,0 points) (0,2 point for each correct answer

1. A

2. D

3.  B

4. C

5. B

IX. Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the space provided. (2,0 points) (0,2 point for each correct answer)                      

1. lots

2. There

3. rivers

4. south

5. longest

6. than

7. flows

8. the

9. high

10. has

SECTION 5. WRITING

X. Finish the second sentence in each pair in such a way that it means the same as the sentence before it. (1,0 points) (0,2 point for each correct answer)    

1.What is the price of the blue schoolbag?

2. Mr Binh is flying to Paris.

3. Are there five rooms in Mais house ?

4. My father travels to work by (his) motorbike everyday

5. She goes to work at a quarter past seven.

6. Your room is bigger than my room.

7. What is the price of  a box of chocolate?

8. There are twelve packets of tea in this box.

9. This house is the oldest on the street.

10. Mr and Mrs Hung are Kiens parents.

XI. Complete the second sentence, using the word given in bold. Do not change the word given. You must use between three and six words, including the word given. (1,0 points)  (0,2 point for each correct answer)   

1. Five people took part in the discussion.

2. To everyone’s surprise John left the meeting early.

3. Scientists blame air pollution for the destruction of/ destroying  the forests.

4. I took no notice of my teacher’s advice/ what my teacher told me.

5. All the students love the principal because of his kindness

XII. Write a paragraph (from 120 to 150 words) about the benefits of having a computer.

 (2,0 points)

Marking criteria

Point

1. Content

0,8

    – Providing all main ideas and details as required.

0,4

    – Commmunicating intention sufficently and effectively

0,4

2. Organization and presentation

0,4

    – Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence,  cohesion and clarity.

0,2

    – The easay is well-structured

0,2

3.  Language

0,4

    – Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language.

0,2

    – Good use and control of grammatical structures

0,2

4.  Punctuation and spelling and handwriting

0,4

    – Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes

0,2

    – Legible handwriting

2.0

3. Đề số 3

SECTION 1. LISTENING

I. Listen to a talk between Mrs Mai and two students about their favourite programmes. Fill each of the gaps with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER. You will listen TWICE. (1,25 points)

Write your answers in the blanks from (1) to (5)

 

Programme Name

Channel

Content

Feelings

Mi

Kids’ Funs

(1) ______

funny (2) ________

fun and relaxing to watch

Tom

(3) ___________

Discovery

a gigantic shark

(4) _____________

Mrs Mai

Journey to Space

9

(5) ______________

interesting

II. Listen to a teacher giving some tips to keep the air clean. Fill each of the gaps with ONE WORD. You will listen TWICE. (1,25 points)

Write your answers in the blanks from (1) to (5)

The teacher gives (1) ________________________ tips, (2) _____________________ tips,

and (3) __________________________ tips.

She tells students to use gas at home instead of (4) ______________________ wood.

She also advises students to avoid (5) ______________________ that smoke.

SECTION 2: PHONETICS

III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Write your answers in the space provided. (0,75 points)

1.  A. healthy

B. instead

C. seaside

D. breakfast

2.   A. nice

B. uncle

C. office

D. distance

3.   A. drops

B. looks

C. means

D. meets

Write your answers here:

1………..

2………………

3……………..

IV. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others. (0,5 points)

1. A. geography          B. literature                 C. hospital                   D. bakery

2. A. finish                 B. address                   C. picture                    D. music

Write your answers here:

1………..

2………………

SECTION 3. LEXICO – GRAMMAR

V. Choose the correct answer(s) to complete each of the following sentences. Write your answers in the space provided. There are some questions which has more than ONE correct answer.( 6,25 points)

1. I usually play football when I have                .

 A. spare time   B. good time   C. no time       D. times

2. In team sports, the two teams _______ against each other in order to get the better score.

 A. are  B. do   C. make           D. compete

3.                   draw on the walls and tables, please.

A. Do  B. Don’t          C. Should        D. Shouldn’t

4. Nam plays sports very often, so he looks very                       .

 A. sport           B. sports          C. sporty         D. sporting

5. How many numbers between 5 and 100 are divisible by 5 ………..

A. 18

B. 19

C. 20

D. 21

6.  People in Tokyo are very polite                      friendly.

 A. or    B. and C. but  D. so

7. Do you know               drink in Viet Nam?

A. popular       B. more popular

C. more and more popular      D. the most popular

8.  The robot will             of the flowers in the garden.

 A. take care     B. take note     C. be careful    D.carry

9. I don’t know how……….. this lesson.   

A. learn          

B. learning

C. to learning

D. to learn

10. A: “Would you like some bread?”          B: “__________________”.   

 A. No, thanks. I’m full            B. Ok. I don’t like rice

C. All right                  D. Yes, I would

11. John: “________________?”            Mary: “That’s a great idea.”

 A. Do you like playing sports       B. Can you buy me some apples        

C. Why don’t we go out for dinner     D. May I borrow your pen

12. Ba: “__________ do you visit your uncle?”          Nam: “Every other week.”

A. Why

B. How often

C. When

D. How long 

13. The school cafeteria only opens __________ lunchtime.

A. on

B. in

C. at

 D. of 

14. On ___________ we often go out for dinner.

A. nights of Saturday B. Saturday nights

C. Saturday’s nights                D. none is correct

15.There are many chairs in the kitchen,                    there is only one in my bedroom.

A. so    B. because       C.but   D.in

16. This is a/an ……………….. car.

A. American red old                                       B. old red American    

C. red American old                                       D. old American red

17. John: “Hello. Can I speak to Trang, please?”                   – Trang: “____________”

A. Speaking. Who’s that?

B. What’s the matter with you?

C. Hello, John. How are you?

D. How do you do?

18. Listen! Someone   __________at the door.

 A. knocks        B. knock          C. is knocking D. are knocking

19. This sign says “Stop!” We ……………………… go straight ahead.

A. can                          B. don’t can                C. must                          D. mustn’t

20. Do you __________ your new classmate, or do you two argue?”

 A. get on well with    B. look forward to      C. face up to                   D. keep up with

21. They often go to Ho Chi Minh City ___________air.

 

 

A. by

B. in

C. with

    D. on

           

22. The tree ________.

A. is high one meter    B. has one meter        C. is one l ong meter   D. is one meter high

23. He arrive ______________ at six o’clock.

    A. home

B. at home

C. in home

D. to home

24.                    there any furniture                  your new living room?

A. Is – in          B. Is – at                      C. Are – in                       D. Are – on

25. Children in the poor villages are allowed to go to school without _________ money.

A. paying                    B. to pay                      C. pays                            D. to paying

ĐÁP ÁN

SECTION 1. LISTENING

I. Listen to a talk between Mrs Mai and two students about their favourite programmes. Fill each of the gaps with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER

 (5 x 0,25 = 1,25 points)

1. 17

2. games

3. Shark week

4.thrilling

5.stars and planet

II. Listen to a teacher giving some tips to keep the air clean. Fill each of the gaps with ONE WORD. You will listen TWICE. (1,25 points)

(5 x 0,25 = 1,25 points)

1. household

2.garden

3. transportation

4. burning

5. engines

SECTION 2: PHONETICS

III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Write your answers in the space provided.

(3 x 0,25 = 0,75 points)

1.C

2. B

3.C

IV. Choose the word that has the stress pattern different from that of the other words. Identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. (5 x 2 = 0,5 points)

1. A  

2.B

SECTION 3. LEXICO – GRAMMAR

V. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence, identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. (6,25 points).

(25 x 0,25 = 6,25 points)

1. A

2. D

3. B

4. C

5. C

6. B

7. D

8. A

9. D

10. A

11. C

12. B

13.C

14. B

15. C

16. B

17. A

18. C

19. D

20. A

21. A

22. D

23. A

24. A

25. A

VI. There is one mistake in each sentence. Identify the mistake and write your answers in the space provided. (1,25 points)

(5 x 0,25 = 1,25 points)

1. D

2. A

3. D

4. C

5. C

SECTION 4: READING.

VII. ChooseA, B, C or D to fill in the blank.   (10 x 0,25 = 2,5 points)

1. B

2. C

3. D

4. A

5. B

6. C

7. A

8. C

9. A

10. D

VIII. Read the text and choose the best answer.

(5 x 0,25 = 1,25 points)

1. B

2. D

3. D

4. B

5. A

IX. Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word.

(10 x 0,25 = 2,5 points)             

1. question

2. they

3.on

4. are

5. an

6. hear

7. information

8. about

9. their

10. sport

SECTION 5. WRITING

X. Rewrite the sentences as suggested keeping its meaning unchanged (1,25points)

1. How heavy is this suitcase?

2. Nobody in my class is as hard-working as your sister.

Nobody in my class is more hard-working than your sister.

3. It takes him one hour a day to play with his children.

4. Why don’t we have a picnic at Hung King Temple this weekend.

5. Do you go to school on foot everyday?

XI. Making full sentences using the words given. Make the changes and additions if necessary. (1,25points)

1. Mr.Nam does not have much time to write to his friends.

2. Hoa’s sister is listening to music in the room with some of her friends at the moment.

3. Mrs. Hue and her children are eating breakfast at the food stall near her/ their house.

4. Who is your brother playing volleyball in the yard with now?

5. Our apartment has five rooms and it is on the sixth floor of the building.

4. Đề số 4

SECTION 1. LISTENING

I.  Listen to the passage about the healthy eating pyramid and decide if these sentences are true or false. Write your T (true) or F (false) in the answer box.You will hear the recording twice.  (1,25 points)

1. You mustn’t eat sweet and salty food.

2. Dairy products do not contain Calcium .

3. Beans and nuts are not important.

4. Dark bread and brown rice are great sources of whole grains.

5. Fruit and vegetables are low in calories and full of vitamins.

Write your answers (T or F) here:

1 ……….         2…………….      3……………       4……………       5………….

II. Listen to a passage about wild animals, then fill in the gaps with the missing information (ONE word or number) . Write your answers in the answer box You will hear the recording twice. (1,25 points)

Name

Giant Panda

Great Green Macaw

Southern Blufin Tuna

Type of animal

Mammal

……….(2)…….

Fish

Size

150-180 centimetres long

80-90 centimetres long

Up to …(4)……. centimetres long

Weight

81-151 kg

……….(3)…… kg

Up to 910 kg

Lives

Hills and …(1)… in China

Rainforests

……(5)…..

Write your answers  here:

1 ……………..

2 ……………………

3 …………………..

4 ………………..

5 …………………

SECTION 2: PHONETICS

III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Write your answers in the space provided. (0,75 points)

1.   A. honest

B. honor

C. hour

D. hobby

2.   A. restaurant

B. sentence

C. festival

D. semester

3.   A. garages

B. places

C. villages

D. nationalities

Write your answers here:

1………..

2………………

3……………..

IV. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others. (0,5 points)

1.   A. engineer                          B. charpenter      C. architect          D. manager

2.   A. nature

 B. mountain

C. wardrobe

D. machine

Write your answers here:

1………..

2………………

SECTION 3. LEXICO – GRAMMAR

V. Choose the correct answer(s) to complete each of the following sentences. Write your answers in the space provided. There are some questions which has more than ONE correct answer.( 6,25 points)

1. I don’t like brown rice. Don’t you have …………………………..?

A. white ones

B. any white

C. no white

D. a white

2. Would you like …………………….. that for you?

A. me doing

B. that I do

C. me do

D. me to do

3. Can you see any people in the house?  ……………………………

A. Only a little

B. Only few

C. Only a few

D. Only little

4. It’s very hot. ………………… swimming?

A. Why don’t we go  B. Let’s go                C. What about go            D. How to go

5. Lan’s father’s mother is her ………………… .

     A. grandparents         B. grandfather             C. grandmother            D. aunt

6. Six and three are………………… .

   A. eighteen

  B. three

       C. nine

             D. two

7. We usually write to each other …………………. .

A. every two weeks  B. every week twice     C. two every week      D. none is correct

8. Which is ………………… of the two girls ?

    A. tallest                              B. the tallest                C. taller                       D. the taller

9. One of them ………………… an oval face.

    A. have                                B. having                     C. has                          D. had.

10. ……is your uncle going to stay here?   – ………………… about three days.

     A. How long – For  B. How far – For         C. How long – At      D. How long – From

11. My French pen pal, Jack can speak four ………………… fluently.

       A. speeches                      B. countries                 C. languages                D. nationalities

12. – Would you like something to drink? – ………………….

            A. Thank you. I’m full.  B. No, I don’t like.   C. No, thanks.            D. Yes, I like.

13. Tom hates watching T.V. …………………does Peter.

A. So                           B. Too             C. Neither                   D. Either

14. I have some home work. I………………… finish it before I play table tennis.

A. should to                B. need to                    C. ought                      D. want

15. Traffic police never let you………………… without a ticket

A. go                           B. going                      C. to go                       D. gone

16. …………………is the capital of Great Britain.

A. Paris                       B. London                   C. New York               D. England

17. …………………people go to the movies now than ten years ago.

A. Fewer                     B. Few            C. Less                        D. Lesser

18. Some scientists spend most of their lives …………………… at rocks.

A. looking                   B. look            C. to look                    D. looked

19. People in Asia often drink ………………… .

A. some tea                 B. the tea                     C. tea                           D. many tea

20. Why don’t we go to the zoo?  –  …………………. .

      A. Because I’m going       B. Let’s drive there     C. That sounds great. D. That’s a good idea

21. This is my book and ………………… .

    A. those are your

  B. that are your

      C. that are yours

    D. those are yours

22. Kyoko wants to make …………………with the other students in the class.

     A. friend                B. friends                    C. friendly                   D. friendship

23. ………………… care when you bring that dish. It’s hot.

     A. Be                                  B. Have                       C. Make                      D. Take

24. My sister has …………………lamp in her room.

A. a beautiful old Indian                     B . an old beautiful Indian

C. a beautiful Indian old                     D. An Indian old beautiful

25. What’s your birthday, Ann?

A. on the thirty-one of July                 B. on the thirty-first of July

C. on July the thirty-one                     D. in July the thirty-first

Write your answers (A, B, C or D) here

1 ………..

2……………….

3………………..

4……………….

5…………….

6 ………..

7……………….

8………………..

9……………….

10…………..

11 ….……

12……………..

13……………..

14……………..

15……………

16 …………

17……………

18……………

19……………

20…………

21…………

22………….

23…………

24…………..

25………….

VI. There is one mistake in each sentence. Identify the mistake and write your answers in the space provided. (1,25 points)

1. I would like buying a packet of tea and a tube of toothpaste.

               A            B               C                     D

2. My classmates always have a picnic two a year.

              A                   B             C              D

3. Do you know how many teachers does your school have?

 A                      B                   C                     D

4. These color televisions are too expensive for we to buy at this time.

                     A                                B                   C                      D

5. We like watching TV at night but our parents lovesreading newspapers.

                        A                       B                                        C        D

ĐÁP ÁN

SECTION 1. LISTENING

I.  Listen to the passage about the healthy eating pyramid and decide if these sentences are true or false. Write your T (true) or F (false) in the answer box.You will hear the recording twice. 

 (5 x 0,25 = 1,25 points)

1. F

2.F

3.F

4.T

5.T

 

II.  Part 2: Listen to a man talking about his meal in a restaurant and complete the menu.( 1,25 points )

(5 x 0,25 = 1,25 points)

1. mountains

2.bird

3.1

4.430

5. oceans

SECTION 2: PHONETICS

III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Write your answers in the space provided. (3 x 0,25 = 0,75 points)

1.D

2. D

3.D

IV. Choose the word that has the stress pattern different from that of the other words. Identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. (5 x 2 = 0,5 points)

1. A  

2.D

SECTION 3. LEXICO – GRAMMAR

V. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence, identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. (6,25 points).

(25 x 0,25 = 6,25 points)

1. B

2. D

3. C

4. A

5. C

6. C

7. A

8. D

9. C

10. A

11. C

12. C

13.A

14. B

15. A

16. B

17. A

18. A

19. C

20. C D

21. D

22. B

23. D

24. A

25. B

VI. There is one mistake in each sentence. Identify the mistake and write your answers in the space provided. (1,25 points)

(5 x 0,25 = 1,25 points)

1. B

2. D

3. D

4. C

5. C

SECTION 4: READING.

VII. ChooseA, B, C or D to fill in the blank.   (10 x 0,25 = 2,5 points)

1. B

2. A

3. D

4. B

5. D

6. C

7. B

8. D.

9. B

10. D.

VIII. Read the text and choose the best answer.

(5 x 0,25 = 1,25 points)

1. D

2. C

3. B

4. B

5. A

IX. Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word.

(10 x 0,25 = 2,5 points)                       

1. one

2. for

3.has

4. knows

5. players/footballers

6. them/players

7. begins/starts

8. on

9. season

10. train/work/practise

SECTION 5. WRITING

X. Rewrite the sentences as suggested keeping its meaning unchanged (1,25points)

1. Antartica is the coldest (place) in the world.

2. It is good for you to do exercises every morning.

3. Tennis is Lan’s favourite sport.

4. Are you interested in listening to music?

5. Who does this new school bag belong to?/ Who is the owner of this new school bag?

XI. Making full sentences using the words given. Make the changes and additions if necessary. (1,25points)

1. Discovery Channel  makes  funny education for children all over the world.

2.Students in our school take part in a lot of outdoor activities.

3. In summer, we go swimming with my friends at weekend and in winter, we  often go ice skating.

4. It isnecessary for us to be present at the class discussions on Saturdays.

5. That boy is the most intelligent (person/ pupil/ student/ one) our class.

5. Đề số 5

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

Time

Time is (1) ………………………………. that you should never waste. Once an (2) ………………………………. is gone, it is gone forever. You should make the most of every minute.

Time is a funny thing. Some days (3) ………………………………. by so slowly. 

Those are the days that you do things that (4) ………………………………. fun. When you are having fun, time just flies by. Time is made up of (5) ………………………………. units. 

(6) ………………………………. turn into minutes, minutes turn into hours, hours turn into days, days turn into weeks,weeks turn into months, and months turn into years. 

We measure our (7) ………………………………. by time. We are very concerned with time. 

Even little children are very conscious (8) ………………………………. time. 

Little children often want to appear older, so if you (9) ………………………………. a three-year-old how old he is, he will often say three and a (10) ……………………………….. 

Many of our sayings are based on time. 

“Give me a minute.”,  “Hold on a second.”, “I’m (11) ………………………………. out of time.”, “Time’s up.”, “I just want an hour of your time.” 

All of (12) ………………………………. are common things that we say, and they’re all based on time. 

We are a society that lives by the clock. 

We almost all (13) ………………………………. watches, and we glance at our watches a lot. 

Time is something that we can’t see, (14) ………………………………. it is a big factor in our lives. 

How many times a day do you look at a watch or a clock? 

I bet you’d be surprised at just (15) ………………………………. many times you do.

­­­-> Your answers:

1………………………………

2………………………………

3………………………………

4………………………………

5……………………………….

6………………………………

7………………………………

8………………………………

9………………………………

10…………………………….

11…………………………….

12…………………………….

13…………………………….

14…………………………….

15…………………………….

  PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently:  (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

16. A. brother              B. summer                   C. orange                     D. dozen

17. A. plane                 B. paddy                     C. math                       D. flat

18. A. stereo                B. lemonade    C. eraser                      D. desk

19. A. workers            B. students                  C. teachers                  D. doctors

20. A. washes              B. couches                   C. sometimes   D. benches

ĐÁP ÁN

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

1. something

2. hour

3. go

4. aren’t

5. different

6. Seconds

7. lives

8. of

9. ask

10. half

11. running

12. these

13. wear

14. but

15. how

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently:  (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

16. C. orange 

17. A. plane

18. C. eraser

19. B. students

20. C. sometimes

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.

(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. C. pagoda

22. D. lemonade

23. A. canteen

24. D. routine

25. A. engineer              

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. D. anything

27. D. Why don’t we

28. A. is talking

29. A. loaves

30. C. for

31. D.

B & C are correct

32. D. the highest

33. B. an old

34. D. Both A & C are correct

35. D. a little

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

36. dangerous

37. leaves

38. policewoman

39. women

40. longest

41. carefully

42. bookshelves

43. height

44. thirtieth

45. weight

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. Does…do

47. are sleeping

48. does…go

49. are going to visit

50. eat

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 0.2  = 2.0 pts)

51. A. a

52. D. second

53. C. his house

54. D. leaves

55. A. It

56. B. at

57. B. gets up

58. A. has

59. B. with

60. C. doesn’t stay

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. (10 0.2 =2.0 pts)

61. people

62. o’clock

63. and

64. time

65. home

66. or

67. to

68. them

69. play

70. give

III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

71. What do many of Tom and Jane’s friends usually do in their free time?

-> They usually eat, drink and chat with their friends.                     

72. What do their friends like to talk about?

-> They like to talk about many things around them.

37. Do many of their friends like to watch TV, listen to music or play computer games at home?

-> Yes, they do.

74. Do very few or many of their friends like to do English exercises on the Internet?

-> Very few of their friends like to do English exercises on the Internet.

75. What does the passage talk about?

-> The passage talks about free time activities of Tom and Jane’s friends.

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the words in brackets:

(5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

76. How much do these notebooks cost, Hoa?

77. Ha’s bike is more expensive than my bike/ my one/ mine.

78. Peter is the most handsome in our village.

79. What is your younger brother’s age, Joko?

80. Is your brother interested in playing Chinese chess?

II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

81. Are your friends going to have  a picnic near the Red River?

82. We would like some oranges and two glasses of milk, please.

83. How much rice and how many eggs do these farmers produce every year?

84. Anh often plays sports in his free time, but he sometimes goes camping with his classmates.

85. Phuong’s brother is playing soccer at the moment. He/ plays it every afternoon after school.

III. Write an essay (120 words) about your family: (3.0 pts)

 (The essay must have the title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion.

Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)

  – The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic “How the family is, the number of members…”.                                                                                              (0.5pt)

  – The body: Write about at least three reasons explaining about what they do in general and in details…, the sentences must contain connectors and link words…                (2,0 pts)

  – The conclusion: Write about the writers’ ideas.                                                      (0.5 pt)

     * Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have:

                        – Long enough (At least 200 words or maybe more).

                        – Correct vocabulary and structures.

                        – Don’t tell the proper names (The school, the student’s/ teacher’s name/  …).

Trên đây là một phần trích đoạn nội dung Bộ 5 đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2021 Trường THCS Mỹ Thành. Để xem thêm nhiều tài liệu tham khảo hữu ích khác các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang hoc247.net để tải tài liệu về máy tính.

Hy vọng tài liệu này sẽ giúp các em học sinh ôn tập tốt và đạt thành tích cao trong học tập.

Các em quan tâm có thể tham khảo tư liệu cùng chuyên mục:

  • Bộ 5 đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2021 Trường THCS Cát Thành
  • Bộ 5 đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2021 Trường THCS Mỹ Thọ

Chúc các em học tập tốt!

Đăng bởi: Quà Yêu Thương

Chuyên mục: Lớp 6

Trả lời

Email của bạn sẽ không được hiển thị công khai. Các trường bắt buộc được đánh dấu *

Back to top button