Giáo dụcLớp 6

Bộ 5 đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2021 Trường THCS Quảng Tâm

Mời các em cùng tham khảo Bộ 5 đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2021 Trường THCS Quảng Tâm đã được Quà Yêu Thương biên soạn dưới đây. Tài liệu giới thiệu đến các em các dạng đề thi học sinh giỏi phong phú và đa dạng. Hi vọng đây sẽ là tài liệu tham khảo hữu ích trong quá trình học tập của các em. 

BỘ 5 ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 NĂM 2021

TRƯỜNG THCS QUẢNG TÂM

1. Đề số 1

PART A: LISTENING

I. LISTENING

1. Listen to the conversation between Tony and Claudia about a robot exhibition show. Fill each of the gaps with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS. You will listen TWICE.

Robots

Size and shape

Functions

Omnibot

as small as a (2) ___________

works as a (1) ___________

Nedo

as big as a human

moves (3) ___________ in natural disasters

(4) __________

as big as a doll

tells you when the door is opened

records and (5) ___________ to your parents

2. Listen to a teenager talking about his favourite TV programme. Decide if the statements are true (T) or false (F). Circle T or F. You will listen TWICE.

1. He doesn’t have a job.

2. He likes reality shows.

3. In Big Brother people stay together in a flat.

4. He says celebrities appear in Big Brother.

5. Viewers vote for the people they like.

PART B: LANGUAGE FOCUS

I. Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences.

1.___________the film is late; I will wait to watch it.

A. Because                  B. Although                            C. When                                  D. But

2. I__________Tom and Jerry many times.

A. see                          B. saw                         C. am seeing                D. have seen

3. It is often __________in the winter.

A. cool            B. cold                        C. hot                                      D. warm

4. Tet is a time for family___________.

A. working                  B. cooking                               C. playing                                D. gathering

5. The Nile River is____________river in the world.

A. the longer   B. the longest              C. long                        D. more long

6. “___________ do you play table tennis?” – “Once a week.”

A. How much B. How long                            C. How far                              D. How often

7. Lan is thirsty. She likes some____________.

A. bread                      B. rice                          C. vegetables               D. orange juice

8. __________don’t you go with us to the stadium this weekend? “That’s a good idea!”

A. Why                       B. How                                   C. What                                   D. When

9. Unless we___cutting down trees, we can’t prevent floods and other natural disasters.

A. will stop                 B. don’t stop               C. stop                         D. to stop

10. It’s raining heavily outside, so we____________go out.

A. will                         B. should                                 C. shouldn’t                D. aren’t

II. Supply the correct tense or form of the verb in parentheses.

1. If he (wash) ____________my car. I’ll give him $20.

2. What time__________you___________ (go) to the zoo yesterday?

3. We (be) __________to London three times.

4. She likes (watch) ___________TV.

5. Listen! What language___________ they (speak) _____________?

PART C: READING

I. Read the postcard and put a word in the box in each of the numbered blanks.

People-   going-   but-   delicious-   weather

July 20

Hi Nick,

Hue is a great city. The (1) _________is fine. It’s sunny all the time. The foot is cheap and (2) _________. The (3) ___________here are friendly and hospitable. The hotel where we are staying is small (4) ___________comfortable. Yesterday we visited the historic monuments. Tomorrow we are (5) __________on a trip along the Huong river. You must visit this city someday. You’ll love it. Bye for now.

Cheers,

Mi

II. Choose the correct word A, B, C or D for each gap to complete the following passage:

Life in the future will be far (1) _________than it is today. People will be (2) _______to live in a cleaner environment, breathe fresher air and eat healthier food. (3)_______will be able to do most of the work in factories and they will be able to do all the dangerous things for us. More people will be able to work from home on computer (4) ______there won’t be any traffic jams. Cars will be with us but they will be able to run on solar energy instead of petrol. Robots will be able to interact with people. They will be able to (5) __________almost everything for us at home.

1. A. good                   B. better                             C. best                        D. worst

2. A. can                      B. are                                 C. must                       D. able

3. A. People              B. We                                C. Robots                    D. They

4. A. so                     B. but                                 C. although                 D. because

5. A. do                    B. to do                              C. does                      D. doing

III. Read the following passage and tick ( ) True or False.

David and Lucy Smith live in Blackpool in England. They have a big house near the beach. There are five bedrooms, two bathrooms, and a balcony. David and Lucy have two children. Their names are Sam and Anne. Sam is twelve and Anne is fourteen. David works in a bank and Lucy is a doctor. They get up at seven o’clock every morning. They usually leave home at eight o’clock. Lucy drives to school with Sam and Anne, and then she drives to work at the hospital. In the evening, David always cooks dinner. After dinner, David and Lucy sometimes watch television. They never go out in the evenings. Sam and Anne visit their friends. In summer, they go to the beach at weekends. Sam and Anne like swimming in the sea. In winter, they don’t go to the beach at weekends because it is very cold.     

  1. David and Lucy live in Liverpool.
  2. Their house has seven rooms.
  3. Sam is Anne’s little brother.
  4. Sam and Anne are both students.
  5. Sam and Anne always go to the beach at weekends.

PART D: WRITING

I. Rearrange the sentences using the following words:

1. the/ Sydney/ city/ cleanest/ is /the/ world. / in/

=>_________________________________________________________________

2. went/ I/ to/ yesterday. / school/ by/ bike/

=>_________________________________________________________________

3. must/ We/ every day. / wear/ our/ at/ uniforms/ school/

=>_________________________________________________________________

4. learning/ They/ are/ now. / English/

=>_________________________________________________________________

5. to/ What/ would/ drink? / you/ like/

=>_________________________________________________________________

II. Complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the sentence before:

1. The weather was bad, so we postponed the trip

=>We postponed the trip _______________________________________________

2. We do a lot of activities in this summer.

=>We take_________________________________________________________

3. The Me Kong River is longer than the Red River.

=>The Red River is___________________________________________________

4. It is wrong of us to throw rubbish.

=> We mustn’t _______________________________________________________

5. Hoa is the best at English in her class

=>Nobody in Hoa’s class_______________________________________

III. Make sentences using the words and phrases given:

1. There/ four/ people/ my family. /

=>_________________________________________________________________

2. Robots/ help/ us/ do/ the housework/ the future. /

=>_________________________________________________________________

3. Nga/like/ table tennis/ most. /

=>_________________________________________________________________

4. What/ would/ you/ like/ drink?

=>_________________________________________________________________

5. Ba/ sit/ front/ Lan. /

=>_________________________________________________________________

ĐÁP ÁN

PART A: LISTENING

1. Listen to the conversation between Tony and Claudia about a robot exhibition show. Fill each of the gaps with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS. You will listen TWICE.

1. conversation partner   2. handbag   3. heavy objects   4. Bocco/BOCCO   5. sends messages

2. Listen to a teenager talking about his favourite TV programme. Decide if the statements are true (T) or false (F). Circle T or F. You will listen TWICE.

1. F   2. T   3. F   4. T   5. F

PART B: LANGUAGE FOCUS

I. Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences.

1. B                             2. D                             3. B                             4. D                             5. B

6. D                             7. D                             8. A                             9. C                             10. C

II. Supply the correct tense or form of the verb in parentheses.

1. washes.

2. Did you go? 

3. have been.

4. watching/to watch

5. Are they speaking?

PART C: READING

I. Read the postcard and put a word in the box in each of the numbered blanks.

1. weather                   2. delicious                  3. people                      4. but                           5. going

II. Choose the correct word A, B, C or D for each gap to complete the following passage:

1. B                             2. D                             3. C                             4. A                             5. A

III. Read the following passage and do the tasks below:

1. F                  2. T                  3. T                  4. T                  5. F

PART D: WRITING

I. Rearrange the sentences using the following words:

1. Sydney is the cleanest city in the world.

2. I went to school by bike yesterday.

3. We must wear our uniforms in school every day.

4. They are learning English now.

5. What would you like to drink?

II. Complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the sentence before:

1. We postponed the trip because the weather was bad.

2. We take part in a lot of activities in this summer.

3. The Red River is shorter than/ not as/ so long as The Me Kong River.

4. We mustn’t throw rubbish.

5. Nobody in Hoa’s class is better at English than her.

Nobody in Hoa’s class is so/as good at English as her.

III. Make sentences using the words and phrases given:

1. There are four people in my family.

2. Robots will help us do the housework in the future.

3. Nga likes table tennis most.

4. What would you like to drink?

5. Ba sits in front of Lan.

2. Đề số 2

SECTION 1. LISTENING

Part I. Listen and fill in the missing words. (1,0 point)

1. The daughter feels ………………………………………………………………

2. She wants some …………………………………………………………………

3. She doesn’t like …………………………………………………………………

4. The son is thirsty and……………………………………………………………

5. He would like to drink some…………………………………………………….

Part II. Listen then choose the correct answer. (1,0 point)

1 – Where does Philip do the photography classes?

A. City College                       B. Music College                    C. Math College

2 – What time do the photography classes begin?

A. 5.15 pm                              B. 6.45 pm                              C. 7.00 pm

3 – Philip’s happy with the course because he’s

A. learning about famous photographers

B. using a new camera

C. getting better at photography

4 – Philip  thinks it’s easy to take photographs of

A. trees                                                B. animals                               C. children

5 – After the course Philip will

A. buy a new camera   B. get a job in photography    C. make photography his hobby

SECTION 2. PHONETICS

III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Write your answers in the space provided. (0,6 points)

1. A. plays               B. says                C. days                       D. stays

2. A. sport                 B. start                  C. listen                     D. eat

3. A. A. station        B. question               C.  . intersection        D. invitation

IV. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three of the group. Write your answers in the space provided. (0,4 points)

1. A. delicious                B. difficult               C. dangerous       D. different

2. A. badminton             B. activity                C. basketball       D. aerobics

SECTION 3. LEXICO – GRAMMAR

V. Choose the correct answer  to complete each of the following sentences. THERE CAN BE MORE THAN ONE CORRECT ANSWER TO SOME QUESTIONS. Write your answers in the space provided. (5,0 points)

1. You can watch Harry Potter on TV  ________ you can read it.

    A.  so

B. and

C. but

D. or

2. “- ________ a nice T-shirt, Trang!”    _ “Thank you”

    A. How

B. What

C. Which

D. It

3. “- ________ films have you seen this week?” _ “Only one”

    A.  How many

B. What

C. Which

D. Who

4. There aren’t ________  good films on TV at the moment.

    A. some

B. any

C. much

D. a lot

5. If we cut down more trees, there ________ more floods.

    A. are

B. were

C. have been

D. will be

 6. That is ________ book I’ve ever read.

    A. the borest

B. the boring

C. the most boring

D. the most bored

7.  The opposite of “polluted ” is ………………..                      

    A. fresh      

B. good   

C. dirty      

D. safe

8. We should use reusable water bottles ___________ of plastic ones.                                            

   A. instead    

 B. because

C. despite       

D. however

9. In the future, we won’t go on holiday to the beach but we ________ go on holiday to the moon.

    A. must

B. can’t

C. might

D. won’t

10. ________ you swim when you were ten?

    A. Can

B. Could

C. Will

D. Might

11. My father likes watching TV____________ he doesn’t like listening to music.

    A. and  

B.  so

C. but

D. because

12. We should use _____________pens and pencils to reduce rubbish.

    A. reliable

B. reusable

C. refillable

D. sociable

13. In the future, we will have ___________to do housework.

    A.  robots

B. wireless TV

C.  smart phone

D. hi-tech fridge

14. Eiffel Tower is the most attractive ____________in France.

    A. building

B. resort

C. square

D. landmark

15. We should use _________to save natural resources.

    A. oil

B. solar energy

C. coal

D. gas

16._______________ means creating new products from used materials.

    A. Reduce

B. Reuse

C. Recycle

D. Rebuild

17. If the ______________  is polluted, we won’t have enough food to eat.

    A. water

B. air

C. noise

D. soil

18. We should give unused clothes to _____________to help the people in need.

    A. charity

B. factory

C. market

D. hospital

19. ___________ are you going to stay here?            ~ For a week.

    A. How often

B. How long

C. How many

D. How far

         20. ______________happens when water in lakes,rivers and oceans is polluted.

A. Air pollution          

B. Soil pollution            

C. Water pollution        

D. Noise pollution

21. John: “How about going to the movies with me on Saturday night?”

 – Ann: “…………..”.

A. Of course not

B. Sure, thanks

C. It’s my pleasure

D. That’s very kind of you

22. Viet Nam is a ……………….. .

A. language

B. nationality

C. country

D. capital

23. A bus-stop is a ………….…. .

A. bus

B. means

C. park

D. place  

24. A: “Would you like some bread?”          B:  “………….…. .”.  

      A. No, thanks. I’m full            B. Ok. I don’t like rice

      C. All right                  D. Yes, I would

25. John: “………………..?”            Mary:  “That’s a great idea.”

      A. Do you like playing sports       B. Can you buy me some apples        

       C. Why don’t we go out for dinner     D. May I borrow your pen

ĐÁP ÁN

SECTION 1. LISTENING

Part I. (1,0 points) (0,2 point for each correct answer)

1.  hungry       

2. apples

3. noodles       

4. tired

5. orange juice

Part II. (1,0 pointts) (0,2 point for each correct answer)

1. A

2. B

3. C    

4. A

5. C

SECTION 2. PHONETICS

III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Write your answers in the space provided. (0,6 points) (0,2 point for each correct answer)

1. B

2.  C

3. B

IV. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three of the group. Write your answers in the space provided. (0,4 points) (0,2 point for each correct answer)

1. A          

2. B

SECTION 3. LEXICO – GRAMMAR

V. Choose the correct answer  to complete each of the following sentences. THERE CAN BE MORE THAN ONE CORRECT ANSWER TO SOME QUESTIONS. Write your answers in the space provided. (7,0 points) (0,2 point for each correct answer)

1. D

2. B

3. A

4. B

5. D.

6. C

7 .A

8. A

9 .C

10. B

11. B

12.C

13. A

14.D

15. B.

16 .C

17.D

18 .A

19.A

20 .C

21.B

22.C

23.D

24.A

25.C

VI. Give the correct form of the words in capital to complete the sentences.

(2,0 point)

1.dangerous

2.singer

3.noisy

4.teeth

5.secretaries

6.writer

7.comfortable

8.finishes

9.childen

10.musician

VII. There is one mistake in each sentence. Identify the mistake and write your answer in the space provided. (1,0 points) (0,2 point for each correct answer)

1. C

2. B

3. C

4. C

5. B

SECTION 4. READING

VII. Read the passage and choose the best option to complete the passage. Write your answers in the space provided. (2,0 points) (0,2 point for each correct answer)

1. A

2. C

3. D

4. B

5. A

6. C

7. B

8. D

9. A

10. C

VIII. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question. Write your answers in the space provided.  (1,0 points) (0,2 point for each correct answer

1. A

2. D

3.  B

4. C

5. B

IX. Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the space provided. (2,0 points) (0,2 point for each correct answer)                      

1. lots

2. There

3. rivers

4. south

5. longest

6. than

7. flows

8. the

9. high

10. has

SECTION 5. WRITING

X. Finish the second sentence in each pair in such a way that it means the same as the sentence before it. (1,0 points) (0,2 point for each correct answer)    

1.What is the price of the blue schoolbag?

2. Mr Binh is flying to Paris.

3. Are there five rooms in Mais house ?

4. My father travels to work by (his) motorbike everyday

5. She goes to work at a quarter past seven.

6. Your room is bigger than my room.

7. What is the price of  a box of chocolate?

8. There are twelve packets of tea in this box.

9. This house is the oldest on the street.

10. Mr and Mrs Hung are Kiens parents.

XI. Complete the second sentence, using the word given in bold. Do not change the word given. You must use between three and six words, including the word given. (1,0 points)  (0,2 point for each correct answer)   

1. Five people took part in the discussion.

2. To everyone’s surprise John left the meeting early.

3. Scientists blame air pollution for the destruction of/ destroying  the forests.

4. I took no notice of my teacher’s advice/ what my teacher told me.

5. All the students love the principal because of his kindness

XII. Write a paragraph (from 120 to 150 words) about the benefits of having a computer.

 (2,0 points)

Marking criteria

Point

1. Content

0,8

    – Providing all main ideas and details as required.

0,4

    – Commmunicating intention sufficently and effectively

0,4

2. Organization and presentation

0,4

    – Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence,  cohesion and clarity.

0,2

    – The easay is well-structured

0,2

3.  Language

0,4

    – Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language.

0,2

    – Good use and control of grammatical structures

0,2

4.  Punctuation and spelling and handwriting

0,4

    – Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes

0,2

    – Legible handwriting

2.0

3. Đề số 3

PART A. LISTENING

1. Listen to the conversation between Tony and Claudia about a robot exhibition show. Fill each of the gaps with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS. You will listen TWICE.

Robots

Size and shape

Functions

Omnibot

as small as a (2) ___________

works as a (1) ___________

Nedo

as big as a human

moves (3) ___________ in natural disasters

(4) __________

as big as a doll

tells you when the door is opened

records and (5) ___________ to your parents

2. Listen to a teenager talking about his favourite TV programme. Decide if the statements are true (T) or false (F). Circle T or F. You will listen TWICE.

1. He doesn’t have a job.

2. He likes reality shows.

3. In Big Brother people stay together in a flat.

4. He says celebrities appear in Big Brother.

5. Viewers vote for the people they like.

PART B. LANGUAGE FOCUS

I. Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences.

1. The kids are more interested ________ watching TV than playing sports.

A. on

B. of

C. in

D. at

2. He _________ out with his friends last week.

A. is going

B. goes

C. has gone

D. went

3. Jack: “Nowadays robots are helping us a lot in our work.” – Jimmy: “_____________”

A. I agree with you.

B. I hope not.

C. Do you think?

D. Do you agree with that?

4. VTV is a__________ television channel in Vietnam.

A. wide

B. international

C. local

D. national

5. “____________ talk in the class. We’re having a test.”, the teacher said.

A. Doesn’t

B. Won’t

C. Don’t

D. Can’t

6. “_______do you like the Các giáo viênern English programme?” – “Because it helps me with my English.”

A. What

B. How

C. When

D. Why

7. There is a ____________ near my house, so I can go swimming very often.

A. swimming suit

B. swimming pool

C. swimming glasses

D. swimming hat

8. People in Japan are very polite _________ friendly.

A. yet

B. and

C. but

D. or

9. If I have a terrible headache, I_________ some medicines.

A. am taking

B. will take

C. take

D. would take

10. There are many different ways to___________ pollution.

A. redo

B. reuse

C. reduce

D. recycle

II. Put the verbs in brackets in the correct form.

1. We (not, see) _______________ Lan since 2010.

2. Be careful! The teacher (look) _________________ at you.

3. People might (travel) _____________ to the Moon one day.

4. What__________ you (have) ___________ in your future house?

5. Jack is good at (repair) ______________ the household appliances.

ĐÁP ÁN

PART A. LISTENING

1. Listen to the conversation between Tony and Claudia about a robot exhibition show. Fill each of the gaps with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS. You will listen TWICE.

1. conversation partner   2. handbag   3. heavy objects   4. Bocco/BOCCO   5. sends messages

2. Listen to a teenager talking about his favourite TV programme. Decide if the statements are true (T) or false (F). Circle T or F. You will listen TWICE.

1. F   2. T   3. F   4. T   5. F

PART B. LANGUAGE FOCUS

I. Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences.

1. C

2. D

3. A

4. D

5. C

6. D

7. B

8. B

9. B

10. C

II. Put the verbs in brackets in the correct form.

1. have not seen/ haven’t seen

2. is looking

3. travel

4. will- have

5. repairing

PART C. READING

I. Read the following passage and put a word in the box in each of the numbered blanks.

1. big

2. surrounded

3. in

4. can

5. house

II. Choose the correct word A, B, C or D for each gap to complete the following passage.

1.A                  2.C                  3.B                  4.D                  5.A

III. Read the passage and do the following tasks below

A. Write (T) for true or (F) for false statement

1. T
2. F

B. Answer the following questions

1. He goes to school by bus. / By bus. / He takes a bus (to school).

2. No, he doesn’t. / No.

3. He plays basketball or table tennis. / Basketball or table tennis.

PART D. WRITING

I. Rearrange the words to make meaningful sentences.

1. Could you swim when you were a child?

2. Young people are keen on home robots.

3. We should not throw rubbish on the street.

4. Da Nang is one of the most famous cities in Vietnam.

5. We are going on a picnic tomorrow.

II. Complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the sentence before.

1. Although the weather was bad, we still continued the match.

2. Has it rained for an hour?

3. My brother swims badly.

4. If I don’t work hard, I won’t pass the final exam.

5. No mountain in the world is higher than/ as high as Mount Everest.

III. Make sentences using the words and phrases given.

1. Football is the most popular sport in the USA.

2. How do you go to school every day?

3. We have not visited Nha Trang before.

4. I am watching Tom and Jerry on TV now.

5. Would you like to live in the countryside?

4. Đề số 4

PART A: LISTENING

I. Listen and choose the correct answers. You will listen TWICE(Unit 8-Skills 2-Listening- part 3)

1. Hai practices at the……… club three times a week.

A. soccer                               B. chess                         C. judo

2. Alice likes ……… ice skating.

A. watching                           B. seeing                                   C. doing

3. ……….. is at Rosemarrick Lower Secondary school.

A. Alice                                B. Bill                                        C. Hai

4. Trung can play ………..

A. the guitar                         B. the piano                                C. the drum

5. Trung ……… goes swimming on hot days with his friends.

A. never                                B. sometimes                         C. often

II. Listen to the conversation and match column A with column B. You will listen TWICE (Ket 1- Test 3- Paper 2- Part 2): What do the guests want to eat or drink?

1. Barbara

A. ice-cream

2. Paul

B. coke

3. Diana

C. milk

4. Jim

D. tea

5. Julie

E. sandwich

PART B: LANGUAGE FOCUS

I. Choose the best answer A, B, C, or D to complete the sentences:

1. …………….. channel is “Thank God you are here” on?

A. What                   B. When                 C. How                       D. Where

2. Watching too much TV is not good…………….. it hurts our eyes.

A. though                B. so                      C. but                            D. because

3. We …………….. to Ho Chi Minh City for our last summer vacation.

A. go                          B. went                                    C. goes                        D. are going

4. Amsterdam is one of the…………….. cities in the world.

A. peaceful                 B. more peaceful         C. most peaceful         D. as peaceful

5. Britain’s most popular…………….. is fish and chips.

A. drink                      B. place                       C. food                        D. film

6. In England, children…………….. go to school between the age of 6 and 18. It’s compulsory.

A. should                     B. need                        C. may             D. must

7. We’d like some chicken and some rice…………….. dinner.

A. to                           B. in                            C. at                            D. for

8. …………….. I help you? Yes, I’d like some beef, please.

A. Do                         B. Am                         C. Would                    D. Can

9. Lan doesn’t like watching TV. She…………….. watches TV.

A. never                     B. always                    C. often                       D. usually

10. My father likes reading very much…………….. my mother does not.

A. and                        B. but                          C. so                            D. because

ĐÁP ÁN

PART A: LISTENING

I. Listen and choose the correct answers. You will listen TWICE:

1. C         2. A          3.B             4. A              5. C

II. Listen to the conversation and match column A with column B. You will listen TWICE:

1. E       2. A          3. C            4. B             5. D

PART B: LANGUAGE FOCUS

I. Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences:

1. A         2. D         3. B             4. C            5.C        

6. D         7. D         8. D             9. A           10.B

II. Supply the correct form of the verbs in parentheses:

1. does not play/ doesn’t play              2. were            3. is coming

 4. litter                                             5. to do

PART C: READING

I. Read the passage and put a word in the box in each of the numbered blanks:

1. player              2. eyes                     3. hide 4. go                5. will

II. Choose the correct word A, B, C, or D for each gap to complete the following passage:

1. C                  2. C          3. D                4. C                 5. B

III. Read the following passage to do the tasks below:

1/ T

2/ F

3.( People called him ‘The King of Football’)because he is such a good football player.

4.  He scored 1,281 goals in total.

5. Yes, he is.

PART D: WRITING

I. Rearrange the words to make correct sentences:

1. Singapore is the cleanest county in the world.

2. It is rainy today.

3. Robots can do a lot of things.

4. Where will your house be located?

5. Sports make our bodies strong and healthy.

II. Complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the sentence before:

1. ……. has a lot of interesting programmes.

2. ……. quickly.

3. ……..we will not have enough water to use in the future.

4. .……. the most crowded city in Viet Nam.

5. …… I have ever talked to a foreigner.

III. Make sentences using the words and phrases given:

1. Millions of children around the world enjoy that film.

2. Pele is a national hero in Brazil.

3. This beach is the cleanest and the most beautiful in this town.

4. How does your father travel to work every day?

5. If it is sunny next week, we will go swimming.

5. Đề số 5

SECTION 1: LISTENING.

Part 1. Listen to a conversation then circle the correct answer A or B to complete the sentences. ( 10 points)

1. The students are ….. a movie for their English class.

A. doing                                  B. watching                 C. making

2. A movie is about ………

A. a best story             B. an old story.          C. a project

3. Phong is going to be a poor …..

A. worker                               B. driver                        C.  farmer.              

4. Is Phong the oldest in the group?

A. Yes, he is.                           B. No, he isn’t.          C.  Yes, he is  header

5. There is also a …… in the story.

A. horse                                   B. bear                       C. dog

ĐÁP ÁN

SECTION 1: LISTENING ( 20 points).

Part 1. Part 1. Listen to a conversation then circle the correct answer A or B to complete the sentences. ( 10  points)  5    x  2    = 10 points

1. C. making

2. B. an old story

3. C. farmer

4. A. Yes, he is

5. B. bear

Part 2.  Listen and tick ( ). (10 points)     5    x  2    = 10 points

1. C

2. B

3. C

4. C

5. B

SECTION 2: PHONETICS (20 points)

II. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D. (2.0 point) 02 x 10 = 20 pts

1. A

2. D

3. B

4 C

5C

6 D

7A

8D

9 B

10 C

SECTION 3: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR. (60 points)

III. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence, identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. (4.0 points) 02 x 20 = 40 pts

1. D

2. A

3.D

4.A

5.C

6 .C

7 B.

8.A

9.C

10.B

11. D

12.A

13.A

14.C

15.A

16. D.

17.B

18.D

19.D

20.D

IV. Supply the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (5  points) 1x 5 = 5 pts

1. has been

2. bought

3. lying

4. don’t need

5. returns

V. Give the correct form of the words in capital to complete the sentences. (10 point)

1 x 10 = 10 pts

1. UNCOMFORTABLE           

2. BEAUTIFULLY

3. PRONUNCIATION           

4. RELATIVES

5. FUNNY

6. EXCITED

7. INFORMATIVE

8. COLORLESS

9. ILLNESS

10. APPEARANCE

 

 

VI. Find one mistake in each sentence. (5  point)  1 x 5 = 5pts       

1. homeworks

à homework

2. an orange small bag.

→ a small orange bag

3. hardly         

à hard

4. does it cost

à it costs

5. any

à some

SECTION 4: READING ( 50 points).

VII. Read the passage.  Then choose one suitable word to fill in the gaps. (20 point)

02 x 10 = 20 pts

1. C

2. B

3. D

4. A

5. C

6. A

7. C

8. C

9. B

10. D

VIII.  Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (2.0 points) 02 x 10 = 20 pts

1. between

2. famous

3. and   

4.  attractions

5.  in   

6. built

7. belonged

8. tourists

9. ago

10. as

IX. Read the following passage, then answer the questions by circling A, B, C or D. ( 10 pts) 

2 x 5 = 10 pts

1C

2A

3B

4D

5B

SECTION 5: WRITING. ( 50 points)

X. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the first one. (20 points)   02 x 10 = 20 pts

1. There are forty-two classrooms  in our school .

2. My house is to the right of the bakery.                  

3. Mr Minh is Trung’s father.

4. Huyen goes to school on foot every afternoon.     

5. He goes to work at a quarter past seven .

6. Is this the best television you have?                                                                                              

7. Orange juice is Nam’s favorite drink.                                           

8. Why don’t we go to the restaurant for dinner tonight?                           

9. The movie theater is not far from the city center.

10. Mr. Nam owns that motorbike.

XI. Use the suggested words to make meaningful sentences. Make any changes if necessary (10 point) 2 x 10 = 20 pts

1. Tom often plays soccer in the fall, but he sometimes goes sailing.

2. How much rice and how many vegetables does he produce a/every year?           

3. Many plants and animals are in danger because we are destroying our environment.

4. Every afternoon after school, Nam does the housework and/or listens to music.

5. I do not/don’t want to eat anything because I’m/ am not hungry.

6. Would you like to go out for a meal tonight?

7. The red car belongs to Mr. Baker.

8. I am reading the book SECOND WORLD WAR now.

    I am reading a book named SECOND WORLD WAR now.

    I am reading a book about the Second World war now.

9. Look at her. What is she wearing at present?

10. We are not going to school next Saturday because it is the national holiday.

XII. Write a paragraph (80 – 100 words) about what you are going to do this summer vacation. (Do not show your name, your school’s name, your village’s name). (10 point)

 + Bài viết đúng chủ điểm và có bố cục 3 phần: (0.2 p)

  • Mở bài (giới thiệu);
  • Thân bài;
  • Kết luận

+ Đảm bảo đủ số lượng từ vựng: (0.2 p)

+ Sử dụng cấu trúc ngữ pháp, từ vựng phong phú (không lặp cấu trúc): (0.2 p)

+ Sử dụng các từ liên kết, bài viết mạch lạc, logic: (0.4 p)

Trên đây là một phần trích đoạn nội dung Bộ 5 đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2021 Trường THCS Quảng Tâm. Để xem thêm nhiều tài liệu tham khảo hữu ích khác các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang hoc247.net để tải tài liệu về máy tính.

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Các em quan tâm có thể tham khảo tư liệu cùng chuyên mục:

  • Bộ 5 đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2021 Trường THCS Đông Hòa
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Đăng bởi: Quà Yêu Thương

Chuyên mục: Lớp 6

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