Giáo dụcLớp 9

Bộ 5 đề thi thử vào lớp 10 năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THCS Ngô Gia Tự

Kì thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 là kì thi rất quan trọng đối với các học sinh lớp 9. Vì vậy, Quà Yêu Thương xin gửi đến các em tài liệu Bộ 5 đề thi thử vào lớp 10 năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THCS Ngô Gia Tự nhằm giúp các em làm quen với các dạng đề thi thử vào lớp 10. Hi vọng tài liệu sẽ là nguồn tham khảo hữu ích trong quá trình học tập của các em.

BỘ 5 ĐỀ THI THỬ VÀO LỚP 10 NĂM 2021 MÔN TIẾNG ANH

TRƯỜNG THCS NGÔ GIA TỰ

1. Đề số 1

SECTION A. PHONETICS (10 points)

I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is differently pronounced (8 points):

1. A. tidal                                B. sight                        C. mineral                    D. describe

2. A. energy                            B. generous                 C. category                  D. suggest

3. A. chemistry                       B. kitchen                   C. watch                     D. catch

4. A. mutual                            B. nature                     C. capture                    D. nation

5. A. looked                            B. moved                    C. gained                     D. prepared

6. A. farmers                           B. hats                         C. rooms                      D. prisons

7. A. village                            B. passage                   C. teenage                   D. message

8. A. few                                 B. new                         C. threw                      D. knew

II. Pick out the word that has the stress differently from that of the other words (2 points):

9. A. admire                            B. honor                      C. title                         D. difficult

10. A. comprise                       B. correspond              C. compulsory             D. depend

SECTION B. LEXICO & GRAMMAR (35 points)

Part I. Give the correct tense/form of the verbs in brackets to complete these sentences (10 points):

a) A: I (1. not see) ………………………..your brother recently.

     B: He (2. not be) ………….out of his room since he (3. buy) …………………… a new computer.

b) While Mr. Brown (4. read) ……. a newspaper, his two children (5. listen) ….to an English song.

c) My mother would rather I (6. not go) ………………….out late at night.

d) My children enjoy (7. allow) ……………….(8. stay) …………..up late when there is something special on TV.

e) I suggest (9. give) ……………..her a surprising party.

f) She looks as if she (10.be)……………..very rich.

Part II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (10 points):

1. My brother can repair electric ……………………………..very well.

apply

2. We must learn about keeping the environment ………………………………..

pollute

3. He was …………………….when he failed his driving test.

hope

4. Mr. Smith is a ………………………..person. If he says he will do something, you know that he will do.

depend

5. He left the room without …………………………………….

explain

6. The ……………………of finding new oil reserves has been led to more drilling in the Gulf of Mexico.

necessary

7. On a ……………………..day, we receive about fifty letters.

type

8. I’m sorry about my …………………………., but I hate waiting.

patient

9. There is a ……………………….of fruits in Vietnam.

vary

10. During his …………………, his family lived in the country.

child

Part III. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to complete these sentences (10 points):

1. The room ………………… when I arrived.

 A. was being cleaned           B. is cleaned                 C. was cleaning           D. was cleaned

2. The students are being made ………………… harder.

 A. work          B. worked                     C. to work                   D. working

3. He told me ……………………………..

A. smoke cigarettes.   B. smoking cigarettes.

C. not to smoke cigarettes.      D. not smoking cigarettes.

4. ………………… my father is old, he still goes jogging.

A. Although    B. Because of              C. In spite of                  D. Despite

5. My grandfather died after he ………………… ill for a long time.

A. had been     B. was                          C. has been                    D. would be

6. That is the ………………… interesting novel I’ve ever read.

A. more           B. so                             C. most                          D. very

7. Some fish can survive in salt water,.………………… other species can live only in fresh water.

A. where                               B. as long as                 C. whereas                     D. since

8. When you are in orbit, you will be able………….on the walls or on the ceiling like in the circus.

A. to walk                   B. walk                        C. walks                        D. walking

9. …………………she starts at once, she will be late.

A. If                            B. Unless                     C. Or                           D. When

10. He left school ………………… his hard life.

A. as if                        B. because                   C. because of              D. though

11. The man over there is an artist ………………… father can speak four languages.

A. who                        B. whose                     C. whom                     D. which

12. I prefer ………………… whenever I have free time.

A. watching TV to listening to music                         B. watch TV to listen to music

C. to watch TV than listening to music                      D. watching TV to listen to music    

13. John gave up …………………stamps.

A. collect                     B. to collect                 C. collected                 D. collecting

14. Would you mind if I …………………the window?

A. open                       B. to open                    C. opening                   D. opened

15. It is high time we ………………… our house. It looks very old.

A. repaint                    B. to repaint                C. repainting               D. repainted

16. I usually spend two hours ………………… English with my friends.

A. practising                B. to practise               C. practises                  D. practised

17. I don’t know how …………………this exercise. Could you do me a favor?

A. do                           B. doing                      C. to do                       D. did   

18. Ba: Thank you very much for inviting me to the party.   – Lan :  ………………….

A. You are well.          B. You are welcome.  C. It’s very nice of you.    D. That’s a good idea.

19. Nam: I don’t like watching violent films. – Nga:  …………………

A. So do I.                   B. I do, too.                 C. I do, either.             D. Neither do I.

20. What is her …………………? – “She is one meter and sixty centimeters tall.”

A. high                        B. height                     C. tall                         D. weight

Part IV: Identify the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C or D) in each sentence below that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct (5 points):

1. Almost all the students were confusing because Ms. Kelly’s explanation was unclear.

         A            B                                C                                                                         D

2. My parents don’t let me to go out without saying anything.

                           A         B     C                              D

3. The students were interesting in taking a trip to the National History Museum, but they

                             A           B                          C

were not able to raise enough money.

            D

4. We didn’t go out because of the heavily rain.

                         A             B         C      D

5. This bed, where he used to rest on, is made of wood.

                          A             B                      C     D

SECTION C. READING (30 points)

Part I. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space (10 points):

            Health is something we tend to (1) ___ when we have it. When our body is doing well, we are hardly (2) ___ of it. But illness can come, even (3) ____ we are young. In fact, childhood has been a very susceptible time. Many diseases attack children in particular, and people know very little (4) ____ to cure them once they struck. The result was that many children died. About a century ago, (5) _____, scientists found out about germs, and then everything changed. The (6) _____ of many diseases was found, and cures were developed. As this medical discovery spread, the world became (7) ____ safer for children. The result is that (8) ____ a hundred years ago, the average man lived for 5 years, nowadays, in many areas of the world, people can (9) ____ to live for 75 years. And what do we expect by the year 2020? Undoubtedly, medical science will continue to (10) _____. Some people will be able to avoid medical problems that are unavoidable today.

1. A. forget     B. ignore         C. give up        D. throw away

2. A. awake     B. keen            C. aware          D. concerned

3. A. if             B. so                C. when           D. while

4. A. how        B. what           C. which          D. when

5. A. therefore B. however      C. although     D. moreover

6. A. reason     B. origin          C. source         D. cause

7. A. more       B. much           C. very             D. quite

8. A. where     B. when           C. why             D. whereas

9. A. desire      B. hope            C. want           D. expect

10. A. speed up                    B. advance                     C. accelerate                  D. run

Part II. Read the passage and do the following tasks (10 points):

            The Washington Post is the largest and most circulated newspaper in Washington, D.C, USA, and is the city’s oldest newspaper, founded in 1877. It is widely considered to be one of the most important newspapers in the United States due to its particular emphasis on national politics, and international affairs, and being a newspaper of record. Even so, the Washington Post has always been defined as a local paper and does not print any editions for the outside region beyond that of the D.C, Maryland, or Virginia editions for daily circulation.

            The newspaper is published as a broadsheet, with photographs printed both in color as well as in black and white. Weekday printings include the main section, containing the first page, national, international news, politics, and editorials and opinions, followed by the sections on local news (Metro), sports, business, style (feature writing on pop culture, politics, fine and performing arts, film, fashion, and gossip), and classified ads.

            The Sunday edition includes the weekday sections as well as several weekly sections: Outlook (opinion and editorials), Style and Arts, Sunday Source, Travel, Book world, Comics, TV week, and the Washington Post Magazine. Beyond the newspaper, the Washington Post under its parent company of the Washington Post Company is involved with the Washington Post, Newsweek Interactive and Washingtonpost.com.

Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to answer the questions below:

1. When was the Washington Post founded?

A. 1877                                   B. 1787                       C. 1778                       D. 1887

2. The Washington Post is ………………………… .

A. the newest newspaper.                                           B. the oldest newspaper in the USA.

C. the oldest newspaper in Washington, D.C.            D. the sports newspaper.

3. Why is the Washington Post the most important newspaper in the United States?

A. Because of its particular emphasis on national politics, and international affairs.

B. Because of its particular emphasis on national culture, and international affairs.

C. Because of its particular emphasis on national sports, and international affairs.

D. Because of its particular emphasis on national history, and international affairs.

4. The photographs of the newspaper are mainly printed ………………….. .

A. in white and black.                                     B. both in color as well as in black and white.

C. in color.                                                      D. in bad quality of paper.

5. Weekly sections of the Washington Post include ………………………. .

A. Outlook (opinion and editorials).              

B. Sunday Source, Travel, Book world.

C. Outlook (opinion and editorials), Style and Arts, Sunday Source, Travel, Book world, Comics, TV week, and the Washington Post Magazine.

D. Comics, TV week, and the Washington Post Magazine.

Decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F):        

6. The Washington Post is the newspaper that does not print any edition for the outside region beyond that of the D.C.         

7. The Washington Post is the largest newspaper in the USA.         

8. Not many people in the world know about the Washington Post.

9. The Sunday edition only includes the weekday sections. 

10. You will be able to find the Washington Post on the Internet.   

Part III: Fill in each blank with a suitable word to complete the following passage (10 points):

Nicola Peet (1)… school at eighteen, went to college and then worked at a local airport. After nine months, she went to work (2)… Saudi Arabian Airlines and then she joined British Airways as an air-hostess. Four years later, she got her present job as a manager.

This is (3)…… she told us about her job:

            “My office is at Heathrow Airport, but I (4)… 60% of my time in the air, I teach air- hostesses and help them with any problems. I also go to a lot of meetings. My hours are usually from 8 am (5)… sometimes I work from 1 pm to 9 pm. At work, the first thing I do is to (6)… plane time on my computer and then I speak with some of the air-hostesses. Sometimes I go on long flights to check how the air-hostesses are doing. That is my favorite part of the job, but I like office work, too. (7)… can be a hard work. When I get back from a long (8)…, all I can do (9)… eating something and then going to bed! I don’t earn much (10)…, but I’m happy with British Airways and want to stay there and continue to travel.”

SECTION D. WRITING

Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it (10 points):

1. I applied for the job but was turned down.

  • My …………………………………………………………………………………………

2. I hate people laughing at me.

  • I …………………………………………………………………………………………….

3. “You stole the jewels!” the inspector said to him.

  • The inspector accused …………………………………………………………………………

4. Galileo is considered to be the father of modern astronomy.

  • Galileo is regarded ……………………………………………………………………………

5. It’s not easy to do all this work in half an hour.

  • I find it ………………………………………………………………………………………

6. He started working for this company two years ago.

  • He has ………………………………………………………………………………………

7. I’ll be happy to give you a lift.

  • I don’t mind …………………………………………………………………………………

8. James will ask the mechanic to repair his car.

  • James will have………………………………………………………………………………

9. Carter felt sick because he ate four cream cakes.

  • If ………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. I am sorry I was rude to you yesterday.

  • I apologize ……………………………………………………………………………………

Part II. Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that has the same meaning with the given one using the suggested word. Do not change the given word in any way (5 points):

1. Teddy regretted buying the second-hand TV. (WISHED)

  • …………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. “You’d better help your parents.”, Nga said to Ba.(advised)

  • ………………. ……………………………………………………………………………………

3. I don’t intend to tell you my plans. (INTENTION)

  • …………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. Burning forests will lead to the destruction of wildlife habitat. (DESTROY)

  • …………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. We couldn’t go to school because it rained heavily. (PREVENTED)

  • …………………………………………………………………………………………………

Part III. Write a letter of about 150 words to tell the soldiers in the Truong Sa Islands about the recent changes in your home town / home village (10 points

ĐÁP ÁN

SECTION A. PHONETICS (10 points):

I + II.

1. C     2. C     3. A     4. D     5. A     6. B     7. C     8. C     9. A     10. B

SECTION B. LEXICO & GRAMMAR (35 points):

Part I.

1. haven’t seen            2. hasn’t been              3. bought         4. was reading 5. were listening

6. didn’t go                  7. being allowed        8. to stay          9. giving          10. were

Part II.

1. appliances    2. unpolluted   3. hopeless       4. dependable  5. explanation

6. necessity      7. typical         8. impatience   9. variety         10. childhood

Part III.

1. A     2. C     3. C     4. A     5. A     6. C     7. C     8. A     9. B     10. C

11. B   12. A   13. D   14. D   15. D   16. A   17. C   18. B   19. D   20. B

Part IV:

1. C     2. C     3. B     4. D     5. A

SECTION C. READING (30 points):

Part I.

1. B     2. C     3. C     4. A     5. D     6. D     7. B     8. D     9. D     10. B

Part II.

1. A     2. C     3. A     4. B     5. C

11.  T   12. F    13. F   14. F    15. T

Part III:

1. left               2. for               3. what             4. spend           5. but

6. check           7. traveling      8. journey           9. is               10. money

SECTION D. WRITING (25 points)

Part I.

1. My application was turned down.

2. I hate being laughed at.

3. The inspector accused him of stealing the jewels.

4. Galileo is regarded as the father of modern astronomy.

5. I find it not easy/ difficult to do all this work in half an hour.

6. He has worked/has been working for this company for two years.

7. I don’t mind giving you a lift.

8. James will have the mechanic repair his car.

Or: James will have his car repaired (by the mechanic).

9. If Carter hadn’t eaten four cream cakes, he wouldn’t have felt sick.

10. I apologize for being rude to you yesterday.

Part II.

1. Teddy wished he hadn’t bought the second-hand TV.

2. Nga advised Ba to help his parents .

3. I don’t have an intension to tell/ of telling you my plan.

Or: I have no intension to tell/ of telling you my plan.

4. Burning forests will destroy the wildlife habitat.

5. The heavy rain prevented us from going to school.

2. Đề số 2

I. Choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits the space in each sentence. (2.5pts)

1. Disneyland_____________its 60th birthday on Saturday 18 July, 2015.

A-celebrated   B-congratulated          C-complicated D-complished

2. _____________the 3rd day of the Lunar New Year, pupils often pay their teachers a visit.

A-to     B-on    C-in     D-at

3. Our little son was sleepy when we were walking to the park;__________, we went home early.

A-therefore     B-however      C-moreover     D-although

4. People ____________do not love nature may not love anything else in life.

A-whom          B-whose          C-which          D-who

5. Speaker 1: “Excuse me. Do you mind if I sit here?” – Speaker 2: “______________”

A-You’re right.           B-Not at all! Go ahead.          C-Sure, thanks.           D- Really? Good!

6. The small bamboo forest ____________the entrance to the village makes it picturesque.

A-at     B-in     C-on    D-to

7. About 70% of the earth’s _______________is covered with water.

A-world          B-atmosphere  C-ocean           D-surface

8. The teacher ____________Van if she had ever tried calling a helpline.

A-said B-advised        C-asked           D- suggested

9. Speaker 1: “______________”           – Speaker 2: “Sơn Đoòng is a new tourist destination.”

A- Let’s eat out this evening! B-We need a holiday, dear!

C-I miss my relatives in Huế! D-I’d like to cook something special food

10. I chose to buy the house in District 9 ___________avoid noise and pollution.

A-so that         B-in order that C-so as to        D-in order not

II. Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting. (0.5 pt)

11. One of the great pleasures of to travel to another country is eating different dishes.

                                        A                 B                                   C                 D

12. The drought that caused by El Nino weather patterns is hitting Thailand and Cambodia.

                 A               B                                         C                D

III. Read the following letter. Decide if the statements from 13 to 16 are True or False, and choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) for the questions 17 and 18.

Dear Daddy,

            I am writing this to tell you how much you are missed and loved, especially on such a special day as today. I will always remember that day – my graduation day. You were standing there with tears in your eyes while I was walking towards the stage to get my diploma, a moment in time that would last foreever. You are such a devoted father who has always taken very good care of family and me. I now live independently, Dad, and I’ve experienced the difficulties of being and adult, and I am going to have my own children with all the burden of being a parent. I understand and love you more. After all, I will always be your little naughty son! Happy Father’s Day.

13. This is the letter written by a man to his father.

14. The father cried when his son was on his way to the stage.

15. The letter is sent from a son to his father on the son’s graduation day.

16. The writer of this letter has no difficulty living an adult’s life.

17. What is the letter mainly about?

A-The writer’s study at university      B- The writer’s childhood memory

C- The writer’s thankfullness to the father     D- The writer’s marriage life

18.  Which of the following can be inferred from the letter?

A-The father is quite irresponsible

B-The writer is in disagreement with the father

C-The writer has a lot of experience in work

D-The writer very much respects the father

IV. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank space in the following passage. (1,5 pts)

            Britain will soon ban smoking in cars with children. Britain’s government wants (19)_________ the harm cigarette smoke does to children. New laws will cut the chances of chilren passive smoking. This is when someone breathes in the (20)_________from other people’s cigarettes. Many studies say passive smoking can almost be as (21)__________as actually smoking a cigarette. The British government says that it has looked at search poiting out that children who sit in smoke-filled cars have (22)__________problems. It is particularly bad in cars because there is so little space, so the car fills with smoke very quickly. (23)__________ agrees with the new law. Some lawmakers argue that it takes away the freedom for people to smoke in their own car. However, Britain’s health minister states that the health of children is more (24)___________ than the freedom to smoke.

19.  A-reduce              B-to reducing  C-to reduce     D-reducing

20.  A-gas                    B-tobacco        C-smell            D- smoke

21.  A-harmful             B-heavy           C-careless        D-tired

22.  A-traffic               B-housing        C-health          D-economic

23.  A-everyone          B-No one        C- Not everyone          D-Every lawmaker

24.  A-important         B-useful          C-serious         D-interesting

ĐÁP ÁN

I.

1. A     2. B     3. A     4. D     5. B     6. A     7. D     8. C     9. B     10. C   

II.       

11. B (to travel Š traveling)   12. B (that caused Š that was caused)

III.

13. True                       14. True                       15. False                      16. False

17. C   18. D

IV.

19. C   20. D   21. A   22. C   23. C   24. A

VI.

25. (modern Š modernize)

26. (fluent Š fluently)

27. (occasional Š occasion)

28. (embroider Š embroidered)

29. (depend Š dependence)

30. (variety Š various)

VI.

31. Our parents were happy to hear all of us had made considerable progress.

32. The Academy of Language offers you a good and friendly environment to practise your English.

VII.

33. We wish we could try all the special food of the village.

34. She said that she wanted to send her son to a university in the UK.

35. If you don’t work hard enough, you won’t pass this entrance examination.

36. Three more new schools will be opened in the town next autumn by the Prime Minister.

3. Đề số 3

Part I. Phonetics (1point)

Circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest (0.6 point)a

1.

 A. miles

B. sleeps

C. laughs

D. unlocks

2.

A. missed

B decided

C. stopped

D. walked

3.

A. chair

B. children

C. machine

D. reach

Circle the word that has a different stress pattern from the others in the group (0.4point)

4.

A.mother

B. worker

  C. invite

  D. lazy

5.

A. along

   B. thirteen

  C. enter

  D. hotel

Part II. Choose the word or phrase which is the best to complete each sentence (2points)

1. Mary visited you last summer, __________?

            A. did she                   B. didn’t she                C. was she                   D. wasn’t she

2. “I promise I will study harder next semester.” – “__________.”

            A. I hope so                 B. Good idea               C. No, thanks              D. I’m sorry I can’t

3. William suggested that__________ at home for a change.

            A. staying                    B. stay                         C. they stay                 D. they stayed

4. We are __________ in watching cartoons on TV.

            A. interest                   B. interested                C. interesting               D. interestingly

5. Thank you for looking __________ my children while I was out.

            A.  for                         B.  up                          C. after                        D. at

6. __________his poor health, he works hard all day.

            A. Because                  B. Although                C. In spite of               D. Despite of

7. Pompeii, __________ is an ancient city of Italy, was completely destroyed in A.D. 79 by an eruption of Mount Vesvius.

            A. which                     B. who            C. where                      D. that

8. Last week, I __________my children to the biggest zoo in town.

            A. got                          B. brought                   C. fetch                       D. took

9. Their __________ made the party atmosphere warmer.

            A. friendly                  B. friendliness C. unfriendly               D. unfriendliness

10. There is __________ in my bedroom.

            A. an old square wooden table                       B. a square wooden old table

            C. a wooden old square table              D. an old wooden square table

Part III. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets (1 point)

a. You (1. ever/ talk) to a foreigner before? – Yes, I (2. have) a chance to talk with some during my last vacation in Nha Trang.

b. When I came, he (3.watch) TV.

c. He advised me (4. take) part in this contest.

d. We are going to have our house (5. repaint) next week.

Part IV. Identify the underlined word or phrase that must be changed to make the sentence correct. (1point)

1. She is so a good student that all her teachers like her.

               A                             B      C                            D

2. I am looking forward to see my closest friend after a long time.

           A                              B                C                 D

3. Jim is more intelligent than his brother does.

                  A           B           C                         D

4. Lan wishes that she can go to Thailand to visit her pen pal.

                A       B           C                                D

5. They made their living by catching fish in ocean every day.

                A          B                     C                      D

ĐÁP ÁN

Part I. Phonetics

 (1 point/5 questions; 0.2 point for each correct answer)

1. A

2. B

3. C

4. C

5. D

Part II. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence

 (2 points/10 questions; 0.2 point for each correct answer)

1. B

2. A

3. C

4. B

5. C

6. C

7. A

8. D

9. B

10. A

Part III. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets

 (1 point/5 questions; 0.2 point for each correct answer)

1. Have…(ever) talked…?

3. was watching

5. repainted

2. had

4. to take

Part IV. Identify the underlined word or phrase that must be changed to make the sentence correct

 (1 point/5 questions; 0.2 point for each correct answer)

1. A

2. B

3. D

4. C

5. D

Part V. Read the passage and then choose the correct answer each question

 (1 point/5 questions; 0.2 point for each correct answer)

1. C

2. D

3. A

4. D

5. C

Part VI. Read the passage and choose the best word to fill in each blank

 (2 points/10 questions; 0.2 point for each correct answer)

1. pollutes

6. should

2. rubbish

7. who

3. amount

8. and

4. because

9. of

5. burning

10. green

Part VII. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it

 (1 point/5 questions; 0.2 point for each correct answer)

1. Nga said that she was going to visit her grandmother the following/next weekend.

2. The doctor whom you met yesterday is working at Bach Mai hospital.

3. The picture has been stolen.

4. Although Mary was sick, she (Mary) insisted on going to work.

5. Scarcely had he put the phone down when the doorbell rang.

Part VIII. Complete each of the following sentences, using the words given

 (1 point/5 questions; 0.2 point for each correct answer)

1. My brother enjoys playing football.

2. I have (I’ve) known him since we were primary students.

3. If today were Sunday, I would go fishing with my brother.

4. It took me three hours to get my / the/ our house tidied yesterday.

5. You should apologize to her for not attending her/ the wedding.

4. Đề số 4

PHẦN A: NGỮ ÂM. (1.0 điểm)

I. Chọn từ có phần gạch chân được phát âm khác so với các từ còn lại.

1. A. passed    B. watched      C. played         D. washed

2. A. which     B. champion    C. chairman     D. headache

II. Chọn từ có trọng âm chính rơi vào vị trí khác so với các từ còn lại.

1. A. polite      B. student       C. easy             D. champion

2. A. destroy   B. appear         C. happen        D. provide

PHẦN B: NGỮ PHÁP VÀ TỪ VỰNG. (4.0 điểm)

I. Cho dạng đúng của động từ trong ngoặc để hoàn thành các câu sau:

1. The doctor advised him (get up)……..early.

2. The students (play)……..with the ball in the schoolyard now.

3. She didn’t use to (work)……..hard.

4. Mary (visit)……..Ha Long Bay last week.

5. Nga (not prepare)……..her lessons yet.

6. He (watch)……..television when the telephone rang.

7. English (speak)……..all over the world.

8. Unless she (study)……..hard, she won’t pass the exam.

II. Chọn một từ đúng trong ngoặc để hoàn thành các câu sau:

1. We are students.  ………school is in the town.                    (Our / Us)

2. He has been an engineer……..15 years.                  (since / for)

3. Nam didn’t go to work yesterday……..his illness.   (because of/ despite)

4. We feel very……today.                                           (happy / happily)

5. The…..growth rate of Vietnam reached about 8.0% in 2007. (economy / economic)

6. The book…..is on the table belongs to my brother. (whose / which)

7. Ho Chi Minh was born……May 19th, 1890 in Nghe An. (in / on)

8. My mother is a good………                                      (cook / cooker)

PHẦN C: ĐỌC HIỂU. (2.5 điểm)

I. Chọn từ thích hợp trong ô dưới đây điền vào mỗi chỗ trống để hoàn thành  đoạn văn.

population  –  and  –  known   –   tropical  –  countries –  largest

Malaysia is one of the (1)……of the Association of South-East Asia Nations (ASEAN). It is divided into two regions, (2)……as West Malaysia and East Malaysia. They are separated by about 640 km of the sea and together comprise an area of 329,758 sq km. Malaysia enjoys (3)……climate. The Malaysian unit of currency is the ringgit. The capital of Malaysia is Kuala Lumpur and it is also the (4)……city of the country. The (5)……in 2001 was over 22 million. Islam is the country’s official religion. In addition, there are other religions such as Buddhism (6)……Hinduism. The national language is Bahasa Malaysia (also known simply as Malay). English, Chinese, and Tamil are also widely spoken.

ĐÁP ÁN

PHẦN A: NGỮ ÂM.

I.

1. C. played /d/ – 2. D. headache /k/

II.

1. A. políte – 2. C. háppen

PHẦN B: NGỮ PHÁP VÀ TỪ VỰNG.

I.

1. to get up – 2. are playing – 3. work – 4. visited – 5. has not prepared –

6. was watching – 7. is spoken – 8. studies

II.

1. Our – 2. for – 3. because of – 4. happy – 5. economic – 6. which – 7. on – 8. cook

PHẦN C: ĐỌC HIỂU.

I.

1. countries – 2. known – 3. tropical – 4. largest – 5. population – 6. and

II.

1. We should bring a gift, such as a bunch of flowers or a box of chocolates.

2. Yes, it is.

3. Because it shows the host is excited about receiving the gift and wants to show his/her appreciation to you immediately.

4. He/She should tell a “white-lie” and say how much they like the gift to prevent the guest from feeling bad.

PHẦN D: VIẾT.

I.

1. B. whom ” who – 2. C. getting ” to get

II.

1. Mr. Ba said that he came from Thanh Hoa.

2. We wish we had [or We wish to have] a big house.

3. It was not warm enough for us to go swimming.

4. Spending a week in the countryside is very wonderful.

5. Although they have little money, they are very happy.

III.

1. I drive more carefully than my brother.

2. Your sister doesn’t know how to cook, does she?

3. Everyone was in a good mood because they had finished the course.

5. Đề số 5

Part 1: Pick out TWO WORDS whose underlined parts are pronounced /z/ (0,5 m)  

surfs          wanders         responds           lifts         stops           

Part 2: Choose the word or phrase in brackets that best completes each sentence. (2,0ms)

1. Maryam was impressed because Ha Noi was different (in/ on/ from/ to) ………..….. Kuala Lumpur.

2. There is (a/ an/ the/ many) ………… small bamboo forest at the entrance to the village.

3. Miss Chi (said/ said to/ told/ told to) …………. she would go to Hue the following year.

4. Nobody has finished the English test, (hasn’t it/ haven’t they/ has it/ have they) …………….……?

5. Viet Nam is a country (where/ which/ in which/ in that) …………. exports a lot of rice.

6. The flowers you sent me were beautiful (but/ and/ although/ however) …………. they really helped to cheer me up.

7. “Would you mind if I took a photo?” – “(No, I don’t mind/ Not at all/ Wow, please/ Thank you) ………………..”

8. Have you ever (lost contact with/ taken part in/ been out of/ kept in touch with) …………… a swimming race?

Part 3: Give the correct form of the verb in brackets. (1,5 m)

1. Many visitors (come) …………… to Ho Chi Minh’s Mausoleum every day.                 

2. Last week, my friend (invite) …………….. me to join his family on a day trip to his home village.

3. Traditional designs and symbols (add) ……………….. to the ao dai for several years.                         

4. If the rice paddies are polluted, the rice plants (die) ……………………. .                     

5. Would you like (go) ……………. for a swim tomorrow morning?          

6. Hoa enjoys (cook) ………… on weekends.                      

Part 4: Give the correct form of the word in brackets. (1m)

1. Reading books is helpful to develop the students’(know) ……………………. .                                     

2. Vietnamese people are (pride) …………..…….. of their traditional celebrations.          

3. There is always a traffic jam here. The road needs to be (wide) …………… .                                        

4. Comsumers want products that will not only work (effect) ………..…….. but also save money. 

ĐÁP ÁN

Part 1: Pick out TWO WORDS whose underlined parts are pronounced /z/ (0,5 m)  

wanders         responds          

Part 2: Choose the word or phrase in brackets that best completes each sentence. (2,0ms)

1. from

2. a

3. said

4. have they

5. which

6.  and

7. Not at all

8. taken part in

Part 3: Give the correct form of the verb in brackets. (1,5 m)

1. come                                   

2. invited

3. have been added                                        

4. will die                   

5. to go

6. cooking                  

Part 4: Give the correct form of the word in brackets. (1m)

1. knowledge                         

2. proud          

3. widened                                         

4. effectively              

Part 5: Read the following passage carefully and do the following tasks: (1,5m)

A. Complete each space with the words given below. Make changes if necessary. Number 0 is an example. (1,0m)

1. dangerous

2. only

3. started

4. attractions

B. Answer the following questions. (0,5 m)

1. No/ No, it doesn’t

2. Construction of the bdrige started in 1933.

Part 6: Complete the following paragraph, using the phrases A-F given below. There are more phrases than needed. (1,0)

1D 2F 3C 4A

Part 7: Complete each second sentence, using the word given in bold at the end so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence. Do not change the word given in any way. (2,5 ms)

1. I wish I could go on a trip with my family.

2. Efforts are being made to protect our environment.

3. He didn’t succeed although he tried hard. 

4. Lan suggested coming there the day after. 

Part 8: Put the words or phrases in the correct order to make meaningful sentences. (0,5m)

1. I’m disappointed that people have spoiled this area.

2. Wearing uniforms makes students feel equal and comfortable (equal and comfortable).

Trên đây là một phần trích đoạn nội dung Bộ 5 đề thi thử vào lớp 10 năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THCS Ngô Gia Tự. Để xem thêm nhiều tài liệu tham khảo hữu ích khác các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang hoc247.net để tải tài liệu về máy tính.

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  • Bộ 5 đề thi thử vào lớp 10 năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THCS Bình Đa
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Đăng bởi: Quà Yêu Thương

Chuyên mục: Lớp 9

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